John 1:29

[yooperviolin]

The Director of Religous Ed at my parish had this to say in a column in our bulletin: “The basic meaning behind the declaration we hear during Mass at communion time “Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world” is, according to John, his community sin - the failure to believe in Jesus as the one sent by the Father.” I checked the catechism and all references to John 1:29 appear to refer back to original sin. Can someone help here? Where does this “community” idea come from? Is it authentically Catholic? Is this even a vestige of “liberation theology?” Some help understanding please?

 

[Barbkw]

John answered them, “I baptize with water; 19 but there is one among you whom you do not recognize, the one who is coming after me, whose sandal strap I am not worthy to untie.”

This happened in Bethany across the Jordan, 20 where John was baptizing.

The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him and said, "Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world. He is the one of whom I said, ‘A man is coming after me who ranks ahead of me because he existed before me.’

I did not know him, but the reason why I came baptizing with water was that he might be made known to Israel."

The USCCB notes concerning the Lamb of God:

21 [29] The Lamb of God: the background for this title may be the victorious apocalyptic lamb who would destroy evil in the world (Rev 5-7; 17:14); the paschal lamb, whose blood saved Israel (Exodus 12); and/or the suffering servant led like a lamb to the slaughter as a sin-offering (Isaiah 53:7, 10).

usccb.org/nab/bible/john/john1.htm

 

[Spencerian]

The Director of Religous Ed at my parish had this to say in a column in our bulletin: “The basic meaning behind the declaration we hear during Mass at communion time “Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world” is, according to John, his community sin - the failure to believe in Jesus as the one sent by the Father.” I checked the catechism and all references to John 1:29 appear to refer back to original sin. Can someone help here? Where does this “community” idea come from? Is it authentically Catholic? Is this even a vestige of “liberation theology?” Some help understanding please?

Hi.

I believe you have strong grounds to question your director’s comment here.

Jews sacrificed their best animals–lambs–as part of their offerings to God in the Old Covenant. This was for atonement for sin. However, while the practice and traditions of the Old Covenant were holy, none of these earthly deeds would be sufficient to cleanse us of original sin, which would give all (including the pious dead such as Moses, Abraham and others) the opportunity to enter heaven, of which entry prior to the Passion was not possible.

John the Baptist’s words directly and succinctly described Christ’s role, not as a lion that would bring victory just to the Israelites by military means, but as a lamb with such significant and infinite worth to the Father that it could rid all mankind of original sin.

There is no such thing as “community sin,” unless your director is using it as another term for original sin. The director seems to have things backwards. Few knew of Christ at that moment–not even the Twelve had been picked yet. So how could someone refuse to believe in someone they did not know of?

Without the cleansing of original sin, nothing we could do for God mattered. It’s why Christ was here and remains here with us.

 

[Barbkw]

The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him and said,

"Behold, the Lamb of God, 21 who takes away the sin of the world.

22 He is the one of whom I said, ‘A man is coming after me who ranks ahead of me because he existed before me.’

I did not know him, 23 but the reason why I came baptizing with water was that he might be made known to Israel."

usccb.org/nab/bible/john/john1.htm#foot23

Footnotes:

[23] I did not know him: this gospel shows no knowledge of the tradition (Luke 1) about the kinship of Jesus and John the Baptist. The reason why I came baptizing with water: in this gospel, John’s baptism is not connected with forgiveness of sins; its purpose is revelatory, that Jesus may be made known to Israel.

usccb.org/nab/bible/john/john1.htm#foot23

?

 

[Barbkw]

Jews sacrificed their best animals–lambs–as part of their offerings to God in the Old Covenant. This was for atonement for sin. However, while the practice and traditions of the Old Covenant were holy, none of these earthly deeds would be sufficient to cleanse us of original sin, which would give all (including the pious dead such as Moses, Abraham and others) the opportunity to enter heaven, of which entry prior to the Passion was not possible.

John the Baptist’s words directly and succinctly described Christ’s role, not as a lion that would bring victory just to the Israelites by military means, but as a lamb with such significant and infinite worth to the Father that it could rid all mankind of original sin.

Jewish people didn’t / don’t have a way to remove original sin?

If so, I’d never considered that, nor have I ever had it specifically explained like that before.

I thought they did that through circumcision, their communial penance service on Yom Kippur. Collectively perhaps, or individually through repentance.

Interesting.

I had the impression that this passage concerned the institution of private (one on one daily repentance with Christ / His priest) from sin (instead of once yearly) - the Sacrament of Reconciliation.

Very interesting.

 

[yooperviolin]

Thanks for the help so far. If there is more help out there, I am looking forward to it.

But… IS the lack of belief in Jesus the “sin of the world” in a specific sense? I heard my pastor say something along these lines in a liturgy commission meeting. OR is the “sin of the world” original sin? OR is it just personal sin?

Next question is: Why do we say plural “sins” in the Lamb of God just before communion. It is plural in our liturgical texts in the latin, the current and the next translation. I have always felt this was a clear reference to John 1:29 even though it is singular “sin” in every bible translation I have seen.