John 18:6- "I am he" or "I AM"?

[Omyo12]

Douay-Rheims
As soon therefore as he had said to them: I am he; they went backward, and fell to the ground.

Revised Standard Version:
When he said to them, “I am he,” they drew back and fell to the ground.

New Revised Standard Version:
When Jesus* said to them, “I am he,” they stepped back and fell to the ground.

New Jerusalem Bible:
When Jesus said to them, “I am he,” they moved back and fell on the ground.

New American Bible:
When he said to them, “I AM,” they turned away and fell to the ground.

The NAB translation implies they fell back because Jesus identified himself with I AM, that is, God

However, no other Catholic Bible renders it “I AM” but “I am he” probably meaning: “I am [Jesus]” since the soldiers and officers asked for him.

So why did they fall back?

The Greek doesn’t have “he” however in Greek the “he” could be implied,

Nestle-Aland 27th Ed.
ως ουν ειπεν αυτοις εγω ειμι απηλθον εις τα οπισω και επεσαν χαμαι

In regards to Protestant translations:
No translations renders it “I AM” besides the International Standard Version and Green’s Literal Translation of the Bible

 

[Cachonga]

I find many translations that have “he” in parenthesis (or brackets), which indicates this is not part of the original, but was added by the translators (supposedly for clarity). However, the Greek term is egw eimi, which is found in the LXX (the Greek translation of the Old Testament) at Exodus 3:14 (“And God said unto Moses, I Am That I Am: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I Am hath sent me unto you.” KJV). When Jesus answered “I am”, He basically identified Himself as God, and the soldiers could not stand before this revelation.