John 5: 14

[PJM]

John 5:14
"
John 5:14
“Afterwards, Jesus findeth him in the temple, and saith to him: Behold thou art made whole: sin no more, lest some worse thing happen to thee”

My question is:

HAS SIN BEEN ASSASSINATED:shrug:

 

[chefmomster2]

John 5:14
"
John 5:14
“Afterwards, Jesus findeth him in the temple, and saith to him: Behold thou art made whole: sin no more, lest some worse thing happen to thee”

My question is:

HAS SIN BEEN ASSASSINATED:shrug:

I used a different translation that is more readable for me.

NABRE
After this Jesus found him in the temple area and said to him, “Look, you are well; do not sin any more, so that nothing worse may happen to you.”

The note on this verse reads:

• [5:14] While the cure of the paralytic in Mk 2:1–12 is associated with the forgiveness of sins, Jesus never drew a one-to-one connection between sin and suffering (cf. Jn 9:3; Lk 12:1–5), as did Ez 18:20.

Jesus forgave this man’s sin. It was an individual healing/miracle.

If you are asking if this means that Jesus destroyed all sin, then no, He did not.

 

[Jeanne1184]

John 5:14
“Afterwards, Jesus findeth him in the temple, and saith to him: Behold thou art made whole: sin no more, lest some worse thing happen to thee”

Matt. 12:43-45

43 When the unclean spirit is gone out of a man, he walketh through dry places, seeking rest, and findeth none.

44 Then he saith, I will return into my house from whence I came out; and when he is come, he findeth it empty, swept, and garnished.

45 Then goeth he, and taketh with himself seven other spirits more wicked than himself, and they enter in and dwell there: and the last state of that man is worse than the first. Even so shall it be also unto this wicked generation.

Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges

1. empty] Properly, at leisure. To have cast out a sin does not make a man safe from sin, there must be no leisure in the Christian life. ((Bold by author.))

I don’t know, of course, but it seems possible that when Jesus healed by forgiveness of sins - that the forgiveness was to the point of ‘returning them to the innocence of little children’. Born again into innocence?

 

[CHRISTINE77]

John 5:14
"
John 5:14
“Afterwards, Jesus findeth him in the temple, and saith to him: Behold thou art made whole: sin no more, lest some worse thing happen to thee”

My question is:

HAS SIN BEEN ASSASSINATED:shrug:

I don’t understand your question. Jesus said “go and sin no more” to many people when he healed them. Basically this guy was healed and absolved of his sins at the same time. Does it mean he would never sin again? Hopefully not, but after all, he was human.

I think the real question is did his sins cause his lameness?

 

[PJM]

=chefmomster2;11972276]I used a different translation that is more readable for me.

NABRE
After this Jesus found him in the temple area and said to him, “Look, you are well; do not sin any more, so that nothing worse may happen to you.”

The note on this verse reads:

• [5:14] While the cure of the paralytic in Mk 2:1–12 is associated with the forgiveness of sins, Jesus never drew a one-to-one connection between sin and suffering (cf. Jn 9:3; Lk 12:1–5), as did Ez 18:20.

Jesus forgave this man’s sin. It was an individual healing/miracle.

If you are asking if this means that Jesus destroyed all sin, then no, He did not.

ACTUALLY I’m closer to asking [caps for emphasis; NOT shouting here] IF WE; IF MAN HAS NOT KILLED SIN?

 

[CHRISTINE77]

ACTUALLY I’m closer to asking [caps for emphasis; NOT shouting here] IF WE; IF MAN HAS NOT KILLED SIN?

I DON’T UNDERSTAND WHAT YOU ARE ASKING!!! What do you mean - if man has not killed sin? That doesn’t make sense.

 

[chefmomster2]

ACTUALLY I’m closer to asking [caps for emphasis; NOT shouting here] IF WE; IF MAN HAS NOT KILLED SIN?

Explain what you mean by “killed”. Perhaps you can tell us more about your thoughts here? What is your answer to your own question?

 

[Ed_Silvia]

I DON’T UNDERSTAND WHAT YOU ARE ASKING!!! What do you mean - if man has not killed sin? That doesn’t make sense.

Yes by means of Christ.

Its curious Our Lord could see the man’s soul was in worse shape than his crippled body.

 

[CHRISTINE77]

Yes by means of Christ.

Its curious Our Lord could see the man’s soul was in worse shape than his crippled body.

Yes, but Jesus also said that if he sinned again, he might get crippled again or even worse. What about that?

 

[PJM]

=CHRISTINE77;11973847]I don’t understand your question. Jesus said “go and sin no more” to many people when he healed them. Basically this guy was healed and absolved of his sins at the same time. Does it mean he would never sin again? Hopefully not, but after all, he was human.

I think the real question is did his sins cause his lameness?

Actually my friend, I’m not speaking here of this verse. But of present conditions. I used the verse ONLY to demonistrate that Christ taught [1] that sin does exist [2] must be forgiven

Many SEEM to dedy the existence of sin or its relevance today; including some self-proclaimed Christians. [OSAS]

SORRY that I was not more clear:shrug:

God Bless you,
Patrick