J
javelin
Guest
Bene7,
This is in response to your assertion that Jesus’ Body cannot be resurrrected at the same time it is present in the Eucharist.
Let’s say for an instant that Jesus’ body was purely physical and fully human as you are saying. Suppose He were to have his ear cut off by someone (like the man who came to arrest Him in the garden), and then have His body miraculously restored (regenerated) like that same man’s ear was healed. Now, looking at the ear that was originally severed from His body, can it be said that it is not, in fact, Jesus’ flesh and blood? Though His fully human body was miraculously restored, the flesh that was removed is still His flesh, is it not?
When Jesus multiplied the loaves of bread to feed the 5000, did the bread need to become divine in order to be multiplied by God? Did it cease to be bread? How fitting is it that Christ pre-figured how He could feed us His own body and blood through multiplication of his human flesh by using bread and fish.
While I follow the gist of your argument, I just can’t see how it is compelling. Even if Jesus’ flesh is no different than yours or mine, it can be multiplied like any other physical thing by the power of God. And while partaking of human flesh, even Jesus’, has no spiritual value in and of itself, it is sacramental and bestows Grace simply because Jesus chose it to be that way. We believe that it is His fullness of Spirit that dwells in the portion of physical flesh and blood He multiplied to give us.
In essence, something similar to physical omnipresence can be achieved through multiplication without any need to “divinize” the physical thing being multiplied.
I do not think the Church teaches that His full humanity is present in each Eucharistic Species, but His full* divinity* along with His true flesh and blood.
Hope this makes sense.
Peace,
javelin
This is in response to your assertion that Jesus’ Body cannot be resurrrected at the same time it is present in the Eucharist.
Let’s say for an instant that Jesus’ body was purely physical and fully human as you are saying. Suppose He were to have his ear cut off by someone (like the man who came to arrest Him in the garden), and then have His body miraculously restored (regenerated) like that same man’s ear was healed. Now, looking at the ear that was originally severed from His body, can it be said that it is not, in fact, Jesus’ flesh and blood? Though His fully human body was miraculously restored, the flesh that was removed is still His flesh, is it not?
When Jesus multiplied the loaves of bread to feed the 5000, did the bread need to become divine in order to be multiplied by God? Did it cease to be bread? How fitting is it that Christ pre-figured how He could feed us His own body and blood through multiplication of his human flesh by using bread and fish.
While I follow the gist of your argument, I just can’t see how it is compelling. Even if Jesus’ flesh is no different than yours or mine, it can be multiplied like any other physical thing by the power of God. And while partaking of human flesh, even Jesus’, has no spiritual value in and of itself, it is sacramental and bestows Grace simply because Jesus chose it to be that way. We believe that it is His fullness of Spirit that dwells in the portion of physical flesh and blood He multiplied to give us.
In essence, something similar to physical omnipresence can be achieved through multiplication without any need to “divinize” the physical thing being multiplied.
I do not think the Church teaches that His full humanity is present in each Eucharistic Species, but His full* divinity* along with His true flesh and blood.
Hope this makes sense.
Peace,
javelin