John Chapter 6

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I was recently watching an episode of Journey Home and the guest was a Jewish convert named Mr. Robbins… He said something that caught my ear. He said something to the sort of “John chapter six, six, six” was a big eye opener or something to that effect… Never the less I have read John 6 numerous times and had never notiiced that John 6:66 is the verse where the followers left and returned to there former way life.

I understand and am fully aware that Chapter and verse were added after the books were written and compiled for that matter. But I still find it weird that in Revelation John (which I understand to be a vision of the"future") uses the number 666… I am not one to believe in coincidence but this has been bouncing back and forth in my mind and am wondering if anyone has noticed this or has anything that could help.

I know that some say that it is the number of Nero Ceaser and many other thing but has the Church ever made a statement on this “number”

But I think a case could be made that to bear the “mark” could be associated with “walking” away from Christ and His Church and Her teachings… Specifically the break up of the 1 universal church… It was Jesus’ wish that we would be unified am I wrong? So from 1 break away church we now have 30,000+ “denominations”. Also I will say that the reformation I believe to have been good for the Church because some of the “practices” were shameful at best

I am by no means saying that Protestants are the devil or anything like that just mis-informed.

Any help would be greatly appreciated on this subject

Thanks and Peace to you
Deric
 
🙂

That’s interesting isn’t it!
62 What if you were to see the Son of Man ascending to where he was before? (21)
63 It is the spirit that gives life, while the flesh (22) is of no avail. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and life.
64 But there are some of you who do not believe." Jesus knew from the beginning the ones who would not believe and the one who would betray him.
65 And he said, “For this reason I have told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by my Father.”
66 As a result of this, many (of) his disciples returned to their former way of life and no longer accompanied him.
67 Jesus then said to the Twelve, “Do you also want to leave?”
 
=DLG123;7762191]I was recently watching an episode of Journey Home and the guest was a Jewish convert named Mr. Robbins… He said something that caught my ear. He said something to the sort of “John chapter six, six, six” was a big eye opener or something to that effect… Never the less I have read John 6 numerous times and had never notiiced that John 6:66 is the verse where the followers left and returned to there former way life.
I understand and am fully aware that Chapter and verse were added after the books were written and compiled for that matter. But I still find it weird that in Revelation John (which I understand to be a vision of the"future") uses the number 666… I am not one to believe in coincidence but this has been bouncing back and forth in my mind and am wondering if anyone has noticed this or has anything that could help.
I know that some say that it is the number of Nero Ceaser and many other thing but has the Church ever made a statement on this “number”
But I think a case could be made that to bear the “mark” could be associated with “walking” away from Christ and His Church and Her teachings… Specifically the break up of the 1 universal church… It was Jesus’ wish that we would be unified am I wrong? So from 1 break away church we now have 30,000+ “denominations”. Also I will say that the reformation I believe to have been good for the Church because some of the “practices” were shameful at best
I am by no means saying that Protestants are the devil or anything like that just mis-informed.
Any help would be greatly appreciated on this subject
Thanks and Peace to you
Deric
WOW 👍

I use this book and chapter so often that I nearly have it memorized…BUT I never noticed this. THANKS FOR SHARING the information,

God Bless,

Pat
 
So you are basically calling all people who reject real presence satanic. I guess infractions on this forum only happen when you insult catholic theology.

So is the goal of posting this in Non-catholic religion forum meant to call people satanic?

I know you say you state that you are not calling Protestants satanic, but why bring this up.
 
I was recently watching an episode of Journey Home and the guest was a Jewish convert named Mr. Robbins… He said something that caught my ear. He said something to the sort of “John chapter six, six, six” was a big eye opener or something to that effect… Never the less I have read John 6 numerous times and had never notiiced that John 6:66 is the verse where the followers left and returned to there former way life.

I understand and am fully aware that Chapter and verse were added after the books were written and compiled for that matter. But I still find it weird that in Revelation John (which I understand to be a vision of the"future") uses the number 666… I am not one to believe in coincidence but this has been bouncing back and forth in my mind and am wondering if anyone has noticed this or has anything that could help.

I know that some say that it is the number of Nero Ceaser and many other thing but has the Church ever made a statement on this “number”

But I think a case could be made that to bear the “mark” could be associated with “walking” away from Christ and His Church and Her teachings… Specifically the break up of the 1 universal church… It was Jesus’ wish that we would be unified am I wrong? So from 1 break away church we now have 30,000+ “denominations”. Also I will say that the reformation I believe to have been good for the Church because some of the “practices” were shameful at best

I am by no means saying that Protestants are the devil or anything like that just mis-informed.

Any help would be greatly appreciated on this subject

Thanks and Peace to you
Deric
This little coincidence has always made me chuckle a little bit.

By no means do I believe that Protestants are evil or satanic - I DO believe that Satan gets a thrill out of all of the splintering that was born from the Reformation. Jesus’ fervent prayer in John 17 was that his Church remain ONE - as he and the Father are ONE . . .
 
@elvisman,
I agree… My brother and his family, sister and her family, my dad and my in-laws, and a lot of my good friends are all Protestants so I by no means do believe that our Protestant brothers and sisters are devils or satanic… I just find it ironic that the man who had the vision of the number, his Gospel is the only book in the New Testiment that has a 66th verse in the 6th book. In the entire Bible there is only two other books that fall into that catagory… 1 Chronicals and Baruch.

I hope that my post op did not offend or hurt anyone that was definately not the intentions… I just was wondering if anyone else had made the connection.

DLG
 
@PJM
Your welcome… I use that chapter so much as well that I always just looked over it or never paid attention to the numbering
 
Thank you for the post - you’ve reminded me of a little tidbit long forgotten.

Rev 13:18
Here is wisdom. He that hath understanding, let him count the number of the beast. For it is the number of a man: and the number of him is six hundred sixty-six.


The number 6 represents man. It’s not so much that the departing disciples turned to evil, but they returned to their former ways. What Jesus preached seemed very illogical and immoral by Jewish standards so they returned to human logic and Old Covenant traditions & practices. They relinquished their faith in the infinite Christ and relied more on their own limited, finite understanding.

Any further thoughts?

CSJ
 
I was recently watching an episode of Journey Home and the guest was a Jewish convert named Mr. Robbins… He said something that caught my ear. He said something to the sort of “John chapter six, six, six” was a big eye opener or something to that effect… Never the less I have read John 6 numerous times and had never notiiced that John 6:66 is the verse where the followers left and returned to there former way life.

I understand and am fully aware that Chapter and verse were added after the books were written and compiled for that matter. But I still find it weird that in Revelation John (which I understand to be a vision of the"future") uses the number 666… I am not one to believe in coincidence but this has been bouncing back and forth in my mind and am wondering if anyone has noticed this or has anything that could help.

I know that some say that it is the number of Nero Ceaser and many other thing but has the Church ever made a statement on this “number”

But I think a case could be made that to bear the “mark” could be associated with “walking” away from Christ and His Church and Her teachings… Specifically the break up of the 1 universal church… It was Jesus’ wish that we would be unified am I wrong? So from 1 break away church we now have 30,000+ “denominations”. Also I will say that the reformation I believe to have been good for the Church because some of the “practices” were shameful at best

I am by no means saying that Protestants are the devil or anything like that just mis-informed.

Any help would be greatly appreciated on this subject

Thanks and Peace to you
Deric
You are looking into it far too much.

Revelation ch 13: 18 There is need for shrewdness here: anyone clever may interpret the number of the beast: it is the number of a human being, the number 666.

Yes, a number of a human being, not a verse in the Bible.
 
@elvisman,
I agree… My brother and his family, sister and her family, my dad and my in-laws, and a lot of my good friends are all Protestants so I by no means do believe that our Protestant brothers and sisters are devils or satanic… I just find it ironic that the man who had the vision of the number, his Gospel is the only book in the New Testiment that has a 66th verse in the 6th book. In the entire Bible there is only two other books that fall into that catagory… 1 Chronicals and Baruch.

I hope that my post op did not offend or hurt anyone that was definately not the intentions… I just was wondering if anyone else had made the connection.

DLG
There is nothing wrong with finding it interesting - as long as you remember that chapter and verse weren’t even given to Scripture until centuries after it was compiled. 👍
 
I was recently watching an episode of Journey Home and the guest was a Jewish convert named Mr. Robbins… He said something that caught my ear. He said something to the sort of “John chapter six, six, six” was a big eye opener or something to that effect… Never the less I have read John 6 numerous times and had never notiiced that John 6:66 is the verse where the followers left and returned to there former way life.

I understand and am fully aware that Chapter and verse were added after the books were written and compiled for that matter. But I still find it weird that in Revelation John (which I understand to be a vision of the"future") uses the number 666… I am not one to believe in coincidence but this has been bouncing back and forth in my mind and am wondering if anyone has noticed this or has anything that could help.

I know that some say that it is the number of Nero Ceaser and many other thing but has the Church ever made a statement on this “number”

But I think a case could be made that to bear the “mark” could be associated with “walking” away from Christ and His Church and Her teachings… Specifically the break up of the 1 universal church… It was Jesus’ wish that we would be unified am I wrong? So from 1 break away church we now have 30,000+ “denominations”. Also I will say that the reformation I believe to have been good for the Church because some of the “practices” were shameful at best

I am by no means saying that Protestants are the devil or anything like that just mis-informed.

Any help would be greatly appreciated on this subject

Thanks and Peace to you
Deric
It’s not interesting at all, here’s why:
  1. It’s disputed that 666 acutally is the number of the beast in Rev.
  2. The Gospel of John predates Revelations, so it can’t be referring to that book.
  3. Even if it were, the chapter and verse divisions aren’t part of the inspired text. They’re only a few hundred years old, and have no binding authority whatsoever.
So, as much as I appreciate your curiosity, what you’ve been led to believe is absolute nonsense.
 
I remember thinking the same thing when I read John 6:66. Any time I see three 6’s together in any format, that kind of thought pops into my head. I figured that it was just a coincidence.

Were the earliest manuscripts divded into verse numbers?
 
It’s not interesting at all, here’s why:
  1. It’s disputed that 666 acutally is the number of the beast in Rev.
  2. The Gospel of John predates Revelations, so it can’t be referring to that book.
  3. Even if it were, the chapter and verse divisions aren’t part of the inspired text. They’re only a few hundred years old, and have no binding authority whatsoever.
So, as much as I appreciate your curiosity, what you’ve been led to believe is absolute nonsense.
The Book of the prophet Isaiah predates John’s Gospel, so nothing in it can refer to anything in John, right?😉

Don’t take this thread too seriousely my friend, it is just for conversation. No where in Church teaching will you find doctrine to lead us to believe this is truth, just interesting conversation peice, nothing more.
 
snip…
I hope that my post op did not offend or hurt anyone that was definately not the intentions… I just was wondering if anyone else had made the connection.

DLG
i think perhaps Scott Hann linked this verse to the people who reject the Eucharist and the verse in the Apocoalypse. or my memory fails me again.
 
It’s not interesting at all, here’s why:
  1. It’s disputed that 666 acutally is the number of the beast in Rev.
  2. The Gospel of John predates Revelations, so it can’t be referring to that book.
  3. Even if it were, the chapter and verse divisions aren’t part of the inspired text. They’re only a few hundred years old, and have no binding authority whatsoever.
So, as much as I appreciate your curiosity, what you’ve been led to believe is absolute nonsense.
It’s an interesting coincidence.

God bless
 
It’s not interesting at all, here’s why:
  1. It’s disputed that 666 acutally is the number of the beast in Rev.
  2. The Gospel of John predates Revelations, so it can’t be referring to that book.
  3. Even if it were, the chapter and verse divisions aren’t part of the inspired text. They’re only a few hundred years old, and have no binding authority whatsoever.
So, as much as I appreciate your curiosity, what you’ve been led to believe is absolute nonsense.
I have NOT been led to believe this by any means… This was just something I found to be a interesting coincidence and thought it would make for good conversation.

In regards to the Gospel of John predating Revelation… The Old Testament “Revelations” from God to the Prophets predate the New Testiment and I believe that they fortell of the coming Messiah who comes to save us all…
 
The Book of the prophet Isaiah predates John’s Gospel, so nothing in it can refer to anything in John, right?😉

Don’t take this thread too seriousely my friend, it is just for conversation. No where in Church teaching will you find doctrine to lead us to believe this is truth, just interesting conversation peice, nothing more.
Thats exactly right… Not trying to say anything doctrinal with this thread just as you said my friend just trying to make conversation while I am at work locked in my office…

DLG
 
Elvis,

When and Who did the chapter and verse dividing? I’m ignorant of these details, I kinda always figured that the chapters existed, and the verses were just kind of numbered logically, later. Thanks!

To the topic, neither did I realize the coincidence!

Peace,
Phil
 
Just to throw in a bit of a monkey wrench - some early manuscripts such as the 5th century Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus actually list 616 as the number of the beast. In fact, in the NIV, a footnote for Rev 13:18 says "“Other ancient authorities read six hundred and sixteen”. Some early writings were divided into paragraphs, but from what I could find, the “chapter and book divisions” as we know it today didn’t occur until the 1200’s or so. Stephen Langton, Archbishop of Canterbury from 1207 - 1228 AD is credited with that. Dividing into different verses didn’t occur until the late 1400’s to 1500’s. Apparently the first bible to use both chapters and verses was the Geneva Bible published in 1560.
 
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