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guanophore
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Actually, the passage does not say either of these things. Scripture cannot be an “absolute authority” since it does not contain the elements needed to exercise authority, an activity belonging to persons.Verse 16 affirms the absolute authority of Scripture, which is “God-breathed” (Gk. theopneustos) and profitable for our instruction. And verse 17 states that Scripture is able to equip the man of God “for every good work.”
Second, the passage never says that it is scripture that equips the man of God. On the contrary, the Scripture itself states that this duty was given to persons who have been authorized and gifted by God for that purpose. What this passage says is that scripture is profitable in that task.
The Catholic Church also teaches that Scripture is sufficient.
Time to check your catechism again, 101. You are bearing false witness against the Catholic Church.The Catholic Church does not teach that Scripture is “sufficient,” and I think you are well aware of that.
I apologize to all those reading the thread for these long posts. I felt it necessary to give P101 the most complete answer to his question as possible There were so many wrong things, I am surprised that it is only one page.