E
Elzee
Guest
I was asked for help in understanding a couple bible verses by an evangelical / fundamentalist friend of mine - I don’t have much to go on but I thought you all could help. I would love to be able to help him (not often he asks a Catholic for help).
He said he was just thinking one day that there is a verse in the bible that says something to the effect of ‘*Just as Jonah was in the whale for 3 days and 3 nights, so will the Son of Man…’ *
Neither of us could remember where this verse is or its exact words (that’s my first question - I haven’t found it yet), but his main question was this:
Jesus didn’t have 3 full NIGHTS (or 3 full days for that matter) in the tomb until he rose, so how can this Scripture makes sense.
I told him perhaps, in Jesus’ time, they described partial days as a ‘day’ and that accounts for the 3 days, but his specific question was *‘but the bible says 3 days and 3 nights’. *
Anyone know where this verse is, and how to explain these two verses in light of each other to a fundamentalist.
He said he was just thinking one day that there is a verse in the bible that says something to the effect of ‘*Just as Jonah was in the whale for 3 days and 3 nights, so will the Son of Man…’ *
Neither of us could remember where this verse is or its exact words (that’s my first question - I haven’t found it yet), but his main question was this:
Jesus didn’t have 3 full NIGHTS (or 3 full days for that matter) in the tomb until he rose, so how can this Scripture makes sense.
I told him perhaps, in Jesus’ time, they described partial days as a ‘day’ and that accounts for the 3 days, but his specific question was *‘but the bible says 3 days and 3 nights’. *
Anyone know where this verse is, and how to explain these two verses in light of each other to a fundamentalist.