C
Charlie_Zeaiter
Guest
I’ve heard of some parallels between the OT Joseph and the NT Joseph.
The OT Joseph refused sexual relations with Potiphar’s wife (see Genesis 39). Do you think this is an affirmation that the NT Joseph refrained from sexual relation with Mary - and consequently adds to our belief that Mary was ever-virgin?
The OT Joseph refused sexual relations with Potiphar’s wife (see Genesis 39). Do you think this is an affirmation that the NT Joseph refrained from sexual relation with Mary - and consequently adds to our belief that Mary was ever-virgin?