U
uncleauberon
Guest
Fellow posters,
I have a question that is focused on ancient jewish culture.
Was it acceptable and/or common for Betrothed couples to have “relations”?
The Bible tells us that Joseph was a just man.
When Mary was found “with child” he decided to Divorce her quitely.
What does this mean ? What is “a quiet divorce” ?
But, she was “with child” her infidelity was apparent.
Betrothal was an official relationship that would need an official divorce.
He had a few options :
Is there somthing to this in the scripture or the culture that I don’t understand ?
thanks
Todd
I have a question that is focused on ancient jewish culture.
Was it acceptable and/or common for Betrothed couples to have “relations”?
The Bible tells us that Joseph was a just man.
When Mary was found “with child” he decided to Divorce her quitely.
What does this mean ? What is “a quiet divorce” ?
But, she was “with child” her infidelity was apparent.
Betrothal was an official relationship that would need an official divorce.
He had a few options :
- Joseph could have rejected Mary and rejected the child and divorced her for infidelity.
- She would have been stoned to death and Joseph would have been clear.
- Joseph could have kept the secret & married Mary and claimed the child as his own. (Which he did)
- Yet wouldn’t her family & friends have known that Mary was already with child ?
- Does this mean that they accepted “premarital realtions” ?
- Joseph could have used some other pretense for divorce {ie: I don’t like her cooking}
- In which case, wouldn’t the family and friends have assumed that the child was Joseph’s
- Would they have accepted that Joseph and Mary had premarital relations, yet he had other reasons for the divorce ?
Is there somthing to this in the scripture or the culture that I don’t understand ?
thanks
Todd