"Joseph Smith was the TRANSLATOR of the Book of Mormon"

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why me;6739244:
right. So he lied.
UHHHH…ughhhh, no. You will need to read what the clerk wrote. Joseph described what the book was and who authored the book. But the law at that time did not provide copyright to translators. Thus, he needed to declare authorship. But as to who wrote the book…he was honest if the person is mormon and he lied if the person is catholic. 🙂

But that has nothing to do with why he is the declared author and proprietor. 🙂
 
Tom, you let these guys de-rail the thread. Forget about the copyright issue, give it to them, it doesn’t matter. Ask them to at least address the original argument with the greek letters “alpha” and “omega” being used and the word “adieu” being used. Otherwise you will be arguing about something that doesn’t matter. I don’t mean to generalize but to be honest the LDS tend to de-rail threads they cannot address. 😊
Actually, it was twopekinguys who derailed the thread and he can either be catholic or protestant depending on who posted that post. Perhaps it was the protestant twopekinguy who derailed the thread but it could have also been the catholic twopekinguy who derailed the thread. You can PM him to verify which one it was. 🙂 For me, they always speak with the same voice. 🙂

But the momons did not derail the thread. They are just defending what they consider sacred and you can not blame them for that.
 
I do not use it to show anything other than Joe lied to make money
With the help of the 11 witnesses who testified that they saw the plates and felt the plates and turned the leaves of metal over, if they were the eight witnesses.

So ol’ joe had to spilt the profit 12 ways. :rolleyes: and Oh…then there was sidney. Since you started a previous thread that he could have written the book of mormon we will need to include him too. So ol’ joe had to split the profit 13 ways…:rolleyes:

Gosh the critics are all over the place having joe do this and that and yet, critics always contradict themselves as they fish for negatives about ol’ joe.
 
Nice try. But an uneducated 1800s American does not speak french, greek, or KJV English
Actually tom, the word adieu was rather common back then in the USA.

Adieu is an English word

There is a common misunderstanding among some critics of the Book of Mormon that the word adieu is not an English word. This is not true. The problem stems from the fact that adieu is both an English word and a French word, and most English speakers are more familiar with its use in a French context.

Adieu is a perfectly good English word that has appeared in English dictionaries, English literature, and in common English usage from long before Joseph Smith to the present. Adieu entered the English language in the 14th century. It entered from Middle French, not modern French, and it has been part of English for approximately 800 years. Adieu has been part of the English language longer than the word banquet, which is also a word in modern French, but banquet entered the English language only in the 15th century. Adieu is no less English than commence, nation, psychology, Bible, vision, or any other word that can be traced back to Latin, Greek, German, French, Spanish, or any other language.

The presence of adieu is no more a challenge to the historicity and authenticity of the Book of Mormon than the 36 uses of banquet in the NIV is a challenge to the historicity and authenticity of the Bible.

en.fairmormon.org/%22Adieu%22_in_the_Book_of_Mormon

Any other problems I can solve for you? 🙂
 
SirThomasMore;6740094:
I do not use it to show anything other than Joe lied to make money
'quote]

I wasn’t responding to you.

So? I was responding to you

Your inability to accept fact and reasonable discourse is not our problem.

Actually, my ABILITY to accept fact and reasonable discourse is how God led me from false prophets of the LDS Church. Therfore, is it not a problem at all. However, your inability to understand truth might be a problem. I will pray that it will not be

First, I have never made any claims at all about Joseph’s education. However, since you bring that up, “alpha and omega,” being terms found in the bible, would have been accessible to pretty much everybody who could read at all.

So? The issue was, was it common English language, and it wasn’t. The fact it was in Bible only goes to show Joe copied the Bible. I doubt Alpha and Omega was big in Reformed Egyptian, especially since Reformed Egyptian did not exist

Given that this phrase “I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending…” shows up three times in the KJV and would therefore have been VERY much a part of Joseph’s experience, it makes perfect sense that he would use that phrase to translate something that meant the same thing.

Only three times? Wow…it was not even common Greek, huh? And actually, swince he was translating from "reformed egyptrian into American English (though we know he copied KJV English) he woulda said “beginning to end” since that WAS common vernacular. Goes to show he did not translate anything

As to "Adieu,’ at the time the word was much more in use than it is now;

Prove it Prove that it was common language for uneducated Americans in the 1800s

…and on it goes, endlessly circling the argument. The fact is, Joseph used the word.

Prove it. Prove uneducated country folk walked around saying "adieu instead of goodbye

…but I’m sure that you will bring this up again and again as if your objection had never been addressed, much less answered. This is, after all, not the first time you have done so.

I will, because it has not been answered…it has only been poorly and unconviningly addressed.

You are wrong, sir. “Adieu’ IS a common word, and it was even more common 'back in the day.”

COLOR=“Blue”]
Prove it. Prove uneducated country folk walked around saying "adieu instead of goodbye

Yes, he did. Of course, nobody in the New Testament quoted scripture to make their points, did they?

lol…yes…when he wrote the B of M, he copied the Bible.

Except, of course…he did.

Except, of course, he didn’t.
 
SirThomasMore;6739442:
UHHHH…ughhhh, no. You will need to read what the clerk wrote. Joseph described what the book was and who authored the book. But the law at that time did not provide copyright to translators. Thus, he needed to declare authorship. But as to who wrote the book…he was honest if the person is mormon and he lied if the person is catholic. 🙂

Only a Mormon would say that telling someone you wrote the book when you only translated it was not a lie.
 
With the help of the 11 witnesses

Well, according to Joe, they were 11 liars…shall we believe Joe or not?

who testified that they saw the plates and felt the plates and turned the leaves of metal over, if they were the eight witnesses.

And who, as it has been shown, were liars, and of whom it was later said they only saw with “spiritual eyes”

So ol’ joe had to spilt the profit 12 ways. :rolleyes: and Oh…then there was sidney. Since you started a previous thread that he could have written the book of mormon we will need to include him too. So ol’ joe had to split the profit 13 ways…:rolleyes:

There you go with that pesky eye problem again…it comes from seeing things that aren’t there. I did not say he was a smart when he lied…but he DID lie in order to be able to sell books
 
Actually tom, the word adieu was rather common back then in the USA.

Adieu is an English word

There is a common misunderstanding among some critics of the Book of Mormon that the word adieu is not an English word. This is not true. The problem stems from the fact that adieu is both an English word and a French word, and most English speakers are more familiar with its use in a French context.

Adieu is a perfectly good English word that has appeared in English dictionaries, English literature, and in common English usage from long before Joseph Smith to the present. Adieu entered the English language in the 14th century. It entered from Middle French, not modern French, and it has been part of English for approximately 800 years. Adieu has been part of the English language longer than the word banquet, which is also a word in modern French, but banquet entered the English language only in the 15th century. Adieu is no less English than commence, nation, psychology, Bible, vision, or any other word that can be traced back to Latin, Greek, German, French, Spanish, or any other language.

The presence of adieu is no more a challenge to the historicity and authenticity of the Book of Mormon than the 36 uses of banquet in the NIV is a challenge to the historicity and authenticity of the Bible.

en.fairmormon.org/%22Adieu%22_in_the_Book_of_Mormon

Any other problems I can solve for you? 🙂
(Edited) A word allegedly being common in the US means nothing. The issue is whether Joe, an uneducated country boy used it commonly. I have read his diary. he did not use it commonly. Nice try. Anything else I can correct for you?
 
Actually, it was twopekinguys who derailed the thread and he can either be catholic or protestant depending on who posted that post. Perhaps it was the protestant twopekinguy who derailed the thread but it could have also been the catholic twopekinguy who derailed the thread. You can PM him to verify which one it was. 🙂 For me, they always speak with the same voice. 🙂

But the momons did not derail the thread. They are just defending what they consider sacred and you can not blame them for that.
We have to admit, that the majority of the time we have you on ignore. Your post proves why.

It is us that derailed the thread? I am afraid you are even more confused than anyone may have originally thought.

Your post (which is before ours) clearly tries to derail the thread by talking about how the thread is rated 5 stars. You don’t think that is a derailment or deflection? Also, if you actually bothered to read the original post, you will see reference to joe being listed as “translator”. Our post addresses that directly. Something you have failed to comprehend 🤷

Now you continue your deflection by questioning our postings? Again, nice deflection, and also an attack.

Needless to say, you are now back on ignore, and have been reported to the moderators.
 
***Stay on topic and avoid personal remarks or expect to hear from me.

Deal with facts and documents or this thread will go away and you’ll hear from me.

 
Let me find my cut and paste reply to this oft repeated criticism…

In the early 1800’s, copyrights were only issued to authors, not translators. Therefore, in order to legally obtain a copyright at that time, the clerk had to write 'author and proprietor." on the copyright page. Clarifications were made in introductions and prefaces. As a result, we have, for instance, the people printing the 1824 version of the King James Bible declaring that they were the authors.

This law was changed later to solve this problem, but at the time, ‘author and proprietor’ was the legal language required–no matter what.
Copyright shlopyright. People have always put the author’s name and the translator’s name. The KJV, being in English, did not require a translator.

Please see the attached for examples of translated work from the time period.
 
Copyright shlopyright. People have always put the author’s name and the translator’s name. The KJV, being in English, did not require a translator.

Please see the attached for examples of translated work from the time period.
Very interesting.
 
👍

That’s one of my first questions on those rare occasions when Mormons come to my door. I can access the Old and New Testaments in their original languages; show me the original languages of the BoM.

And when they talk about the “burning in the bosom” that lets them know what is right, I confess that I get a burning in my bosom occasionally, but Gaviscon or Pepto-Bismal takes care of it right away.
To your first point, the BOM was written in the fictional language “Reformed Egyptian.” Since Smith clearly connected the Meso-American ruins with BOM cities, it makes sense that we’d find some evidence that the BOM was accurate if such things happened there, right?

Instead, however, we find not one single piece of evidence to support the church’s position here because “Reformed Egyptian” never existed anywhere outside of Mormonism. In fact, most apologists don’t even know what it looks like but I have two different BOMs that clearly show it: one has a gold cover and has the characters front and back (1963) and the other is a 1971 edition with the very same characters on one of the last pages.

Regarding your second point, the “burning in the bosom” is obviously a bunch of nonsense because to a Mormon, there’s only one correct answer, and that’s that the BOM is correct. If you get any other answer, the problem is with you, not the BOM which means that the answer is predetermined and thus false.

I answer that charge by asking if I should then pray over Mein Krap, The Art of War, the repair manual for my truck, or the New York Times. And what if I get a burning in the my bosom over one of them? What does that mean?
 
Tom, you let these guys de-rail the thread. Forget about the copyright issue, give it to them, it doesn’t matter. Ask them to at least address the original argument with the Greek letters “alpha” and “omega” being used and the word “adieu” being used. Otherwise you will be arguing about something that doesn’t matter. (Edited)
I used to take it at face value, but when I checked into it, the LDS are correct; that’s the way the law was written at the time.

But yes, we have the BOM full of the New Testament, and not just any NT, but the KJV specifically, first published in 1611, meaning that Lehi, Nephi, and Jacob are all quoting from a text that had yet to be written by people not yet born in a language not yet evolved some 5,000 miles away.

Does that make sense?
 
It is perfectly permissible for any translator to use words that express the meaning of the original text if those words are available to him ." “Aand would be understood by his readers, even if that word is “Adieu” for ‘goodbye’ or 'go with Godlpha and Omega…” meaning 'first and last…" are well translated as such, easily understood as such, and you need to get over it already.

Nice try. But an uneducated 1800s American does not speak french, Greek, or KJV English
I wholly agree and since we know that the BOM is a literal translation and that Smith didn’t use any of his own language or ideas in it according to apostle Russel M. Nelson and David Whitmer, the mistakes in the text must have been those of God, right?

I also want to mention the fact that Smith clearly stated as fact that the BOM did not contain any Greek or Latin words at all. I guess he didn’t know the root word for Christ is actually Latin…
 
And this is quite interesting:


…“The Book of Mormon: an account written by the hand of Mormon, upon plates taken from the Plates of Nephi.

…written by way of commandment, and also by the spirit of Prophesy and of Revelation.

…the things of God,…”


It seems that Joseph Smith was perfectly clear just what the book of mormon was as he sought the copyright.
Ah…so you admit Joseph lied just to get what he wanted and to make money?

Figures

"Joseph looked into the hat in which he placed the stone, and received a revelation that some of the brethren should go to Toronto, Canada, and that they would sell the copyright of the Book of Mormon. Hiram Page and Oliver Cowdery went to Toronto on this mission, but they failed entirely to sell the copyright, returning without any money.

Joseph…enquired of the Lord about it, and behold the following revelation came through the stone: “Some revelations are of God: some revelations are of men: and some revelations are of the devil.”…

  • David Witmer, AN ADDRESS TO ALL BELIEVERS IN CHRIST, 1887
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Answersplease:
Joseph Smith…

“sought the copyright” to the Book of Mormon…

and then tried to sell the copyright to the Book of Mormon.

Hmmm…
 
Copyright shlopyright. People have always put the author’s name and the translator’s name. The KJV, being in English, did not require a translator.

Please see the attached for examples of translated work from the time period.
I had to look at those again.

1 appears to be published in the USA, and the other 2 published in the UK. All in a relatively close time frame.

So, the issue of js being listed as an “author” because he had to because of copyright is not based in fact at all.

Just like the temple ceremonies being in the congressional record is not based in fact at all.

I found this on signaturebooks.com, which appears to be a pro-mormon site.

“Contrary to popular folklore, the LDS temple ceremony was not performed or recited in the U.S. Senate chambers during the 1904-06 challenge to Reed Smoot’s election from Utah. Nor was it entered into the Congressional Record.”

signaturebooks.com/?p=491

It seems that some of the defenses used with these things are based more in folklore than anything.
 
Regarding your second point, the “burning in the bosom” is obviously a bunch of nonsense because to a Mormon, there’s only one correct answer, and that’s that the BOM is correct. If you get any other answer, the problem is with you, not the BOM which means that the answer is predetermined and thus false.
Many people have had a witness from the holy ghost that the book of mormon is true. Thus, they become mormons. It is not nonsense for mormons. In fact it is quite a bold claim to make inside a book that if one prays about it, the Holy Ghost will testify as to its truthfulness.

When a person experiences this feeling, it is not nonsense at all but quite ovewhelming.
 
I had to look at those again.

1 appears to be published in the USA, and the other 2 published in the UK. All in a relatively close time frame.

So, the issue of js being listed as an “author” because he had to because of copyright is not based in fact at all.
You will need to contact the NY court at that time that required Joseph to claim authorship even though he clearly stated who the author was. My guess is simple: The law, which definitely did not recognize the lds church nor the book of mormon, would not accept Mormon being the author of the book of mormon. Thus, Joseph became the author.

Now that would make sense.
 
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