Jospeh, Mary, and God's command via Paul

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How does the Church reconcile Joseph taking Mary to be his wife, and then not having marital relations, when God gives a command via Paul that they should:
1 Cor 7:3 The husband should give to his wife her conjugal rights, and likewise the wife to her husband. 4 For the wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. Likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does. 5** Do not deprive one another, except perhaps by agreement for a limited time, that you may devote yourselves to prayer; but then come together again,** so that Satan may not tempt you because of your lack of self-control.
Even if there was an agreement to refrain until Mary gave birth, the command seems clear that they should have come together. Did they disobey this command?
 
How does the Church reconcile Joseph taking Mary to be his wife, and then not having marital relations, when God gives a command via Paul that they should:

Even if there was an agreement to refrain until Mary gave birth, the command seems clear that they should have come together. Did they disobey this command?
How could they obey that command? Joseph was already dead when Paul began preaching…

There is currently a thread going in this forum already regarding a similar topic. Take a look at some of those posts and see if that doesn’t shed new light on things.
 
How could they obey that command? Joseph was already dead when Paul began preaching…
So, this was acceptable before Paul wrote it, but not afterwards? Did Paul institute new laws that no one before had to follow?
 
So, this was acceptable before Paul wrote it, but not afterwards? Did Paul institute new laws that no one before had to follow?
There is already a thread in this section discussing that topic:

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=739797

Read some of the answers there and see if that doesn’t shed new light on the subject, especially since Mary and Joseph were living under Jewish law, not NT.

You can also pose your question to the “Ask An Apologist” section if you feel you’re not getting your question answered here by forum members.
 
How does the Church reconcile Joseph taking Mary to be his wife, and then not having marital relations, when God gives a command via Paul that they should:

Even if there was an agreement to refrain until Mary gave birth, the command seems clear that they should have come together. Did they disobey this command?
God does not give a command to the Holy Family regarding any of this! Paul was not speaking of the Holy Family. Paul was not writing of the mother that Christ created for Himself. As well, Paul wrote this after Joseph’s death.

Mary vowed before God to be the “bond slave” or"handmaid" of her own son.
From the mouth of Christ Himself: how many masters may one serve?

I do not understand all of this impious speculation about Christ’s chosen mother - impious speculation which was condemned by Jean Calvin. I do not understand how so many have rejected the beliefs of even the reformers. All of this for the sake of insulting Christ by making His mother common? A woman who lied to Gabriel?

I do not believe that you have seriously thought this through.
 
So, this was acceptable before Paul wrote it, but not afterwards? Did Paul institute new laws that no one before had to follow?
So, all who went before Christ had to be Christian? Listen to yourself here!
 
=Muze;10168144]How does the Church reconcile Joseph taking Mary to be his wife, and then not having marital relations, when God gives a command via Paul that they should:
Even if there was an agreement to refrain until Mary gave birth, the command seems clear that they should have come together. Did they disobey this command?
Hmmmm :hmmm:

I wonder IF the FACT that Paul follows Mary and Joseph in time and history if that might have someting to do with it?

I believe [its my understading] that even in current times the caste marriage is a possibility if BOTH parties FREELY agree with it.

God Bless,

pat/PJM
 
Hmmmm :hmmm:

I wonder IF the FACT that Paul follows Mary and Joseph in time and history if that might have someting to do with it?

I believe [its my understading] that even in current times the caste marriage is a possibility if BOTH parties FREELY agree with it.

God Bless,

pat/PJM
One will believe anything to be non-Catholic or even anti-Catholic, I guess… 🤷
 
=po18guy;10169206]One will believe anything to be non-Catholic or even anti-Catholic, I guess… 🤷
AMEN!

Let US pray!

Have a Blessed Christmas,

Pat
 
I do not understand all of this impious speculation about Christ’s chosen mother - impious speculation which was condemned by Jean Calvin. I do not understand how so many have rejected the beliefs of even the reformers. All of this for the sake of insulting Christ by making His mother common? A woman who lied to Gabriel?

I do not believe that you have seriously thought this through.
Amen! I agree wholeheartedly. So many Catholics posting on here lately questioning Mary’s perpetual virginity and her Immaculate Conception etc. etc. puzzles me! :confused:
 
Joseph was a widower who already had a flock of kids when he took Mary to bride. By some accounts, at least four sons and who knows how many daughters. Then he went immediately back to square one with another infant.

That should have been enough to cool anyone’s ardor.
 
When Adam and Eve were created they were virgins, and after the Resurrection, we will be like the angels and not marry (according to Jesus). God created man and woman because he foresaw the fall of man, and so gave us a way of remaining holy in his presence through the sacrament of Holy Matrimony. It is for this reason that it is said that when a man joins with his wife the two become one flesh, for the woman was created from the flesh of a man so that they could join in nature with another and take part in the creation process with God.

Jesus is called the New Adam, coming from the flesh of the Virgin Mary, born before all ages, perfect in every way: without sin, a virgin, perfect God and perfect Man. Mary was saved even before she was born (“As he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and unspotted in his sight in charity” - Ephesians 1:4, “Before I formed thee in the bowels of thy mother, I knew thee: and before thou camest forth out of the womb, I sanctified thee, and made thee a prophet unto the nations.” - Jeremiah 1:5) , and the Church Father’s called her the New Eve. She is not only the mother of Christ, she is also the mother of the whole Church, and she is joined with Christ, and was made one with Him. Therefore, what God has joined together, let no man tear apart (Matthew 19:6).
 
=JonathonofOhio;10191152]When Adam and Eve were created they were virgins, and after the Resurrection, we will be like the angels and not marry (according to Jesus). God created man and woman because he foresaw the fall of man, and so gave us a way of remaining holy in his presence through the sacrament of Holy Matrimony. It is for this reason that it is said that when a man joins with his wife the two become one flesh, for the woman was created from the flesh of a man so that they could join in nature with another and take part in the creation process with God.
Jesus is called the New Adam, coming from the flesh of the Virgin Mary, born before all ages, perfect in every way: without sin, a virgin, perfect God and perfect Man. Mary was saved even before she was born (“As he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and unspotted in his sight in charity” - Ephesians 1:4, “Before I formed thee in the bowels of thy mother, I knew thee: and before thou camest forth out of the womb, I sanctified thee, and made thee a prophet unto the nations.” - Jeremiah 1:5) , and the Church Father’s called her the New Eve. She is not only the mother of Christ, she is also the mother of the whole Church, and she is joined with Christ, and was made one with Him. Therefore, what God has joined together, let no man tear apart (Matthew 19:6).
Well said!

Thanks,
 
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