1.) Some harmonize the account and say that after Judas expired by hanging himself (as per Matthew), he fell off from whatever he was hanging on (as per Acts).
He therefore is not describing literally what happened, but applies the OT type of Ahithophel for his end.
3.) As IHeartAquinas mentioned, others think that Luke and Matthew heard different stories as for what happened to Judas.
The chief priests did not want to put the money paid for the betrayal of Jesus back into the temple treasury as it was “blood money.” So they bought an “agros:” a field to bury strangers in. Because blood money was used to purchase the field it was called “the field [agros] of blood.” This is different than the property [chorion] that Judas purchased himself referred to in Acts Chapter 1.
The problem here is that both Acts and Matthew connect the purchase specifically with Judas’ act of treachery. Thus I cannot accept this solution. However, it does lead into our own answer. There are a few factors at here – one linguistic, the others sociological.
The word used by Matthew for “bought” is
agorazo – a general term meaning, “to go to market.” It means to purchase, but also to redeem. It is a verb that refers to the transaction of business. Note how Luke uses it in opposition to another word:
Luke 22:36 Then said he unto them, But now, he that hath a purse, let him take it, and likewise his scrip: and he that hath no sword, let him sell (poleo) his garment, and buy (
agorazo)
one.
Poleo can mean “sell” but it’s primary meaning has to do with trading and bartering. Therefore the translation of “buy” (and “sell”) is made according to context.
How does this mean anything with regard to Judas?
First note the word Luke uses. It is
ktaomai, which means to “get, acquire, obtain, possess, provide, purchase.” This word has the connotations of ownership that agorazo does not. Matthew says that the priests transacted business for the obtaining of the field, but they did not thereby have possession of the field. The money they used was Judas’ and the field was bought in his name; the field was technically and legally his.
And that leads to another question no one has yet raised, but which I will:
It seems too much of a coincidence, that the priests managed to buy the exact same field that Judas died in.
Not at all. Once Judas died in the field, the land became defiled by his corpse. Hence it would become perfectly suited to become a full-time cemetery. In this ancient collectivist society, the gossip would readily get around as to where and how Judas died and it would not be a burden for the decision to be made to purchase the field in Judas’ name (see below) to turn into a cemetery.
**If Judas threw the money away, it wasn’t his anymore, it belonged to the priests. **
This is where our social factor comes into play. Note that the money cannot be put in the treasury – it cannot be made to belong to the temple again – because it is blood money. Keener observes in his Matthean commentary [657-8]:
Ancient Eastern peoples regarded very seriously the guilt of innocent blood, sometimes viewed in terms of corporate responsibility. Like Pilate the priestly officials wanted nothing further to do with the situation, and likewise understand that the blood was innocent…
The money was profaned and tainted by the way it was used. By ancient thinking, it was
ritually unclean – though even today a charity may refuse money if it is gained by ill-gotten means.
Now it follows that when they transacted the business of the field for the temple, to avoid association with ritual uncleanness, the priests would have to have bought it in the name of Judas Iscariot, the one whose blood money it was. The property and transaction records available to the public and probably consulted by Luke would reflect that Judas bought the field – or else Luke is indeed aware of what transpired and is using just the right verb to make the point.
