Just a question... Dispensationalism

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From my understanding of Dispensationalism, and it could be off so correct me if I am… God treats man differently at different times in history…

Assuming this is correct, shouldn’t this notion be heretical to pretty much all Christians Protestant and Catholic Alike?

Reason:
  1. All Christians agree that God is Unchanging. I don’t know of any current denomination that teaches otherwise. (though I could be wrong)
  2. If God is Unchanging, then how come he treats people differently at different times… God can’t be unchanging if the way he treats man Changes… This would also mean that the way he dispenses his grace changes. Shouldn’t this be contrary to the whole “in the beginning was the word…” How can the “word” change
As mentioned I could have an invalid understanding of Dispensationalism. So, if I created a straw man argument. Correct me as i do not wish to bare false witness.

In Christ
 
From my understanding of Dispensationalism, and it could be off so correct me if I am… God treats man differently at different times in history…

Assuming this is correct, shouldn’t this notion be heretical to pretty much all Christians Protestant and Catholic Alike?

Reason:
  1. All Christians agree that God is Unchanging. I don’t know of any current denomination that teaches otherwise. (though I could be wrong)
  2. If God is Unchanging, then how come he treats people differently at different times… God can’t be unchanging if the way he treats man Changes… This would also mean that the way he dispenses his grace changes. Shouldn’t this be contrary to the whole “in the beginning was the word…” How can the “word” change
As mentioned I could have an invalid understanding of Dispensationalism. So, if I created a straw man argument. Correct me as i do not wish to bare false witness.

In Christ
Hbr 1:1 ¶ God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
Let us take the simple matter of food. Are the same dietary requirements needed today?
 
But isn’t that verse just talking about the various ways he revealed his Singular truth to the world, not that they way his truth works changes…
ie, once through a burning bush, through prophets in various manners, and ultimately, though Christ and his apostles

In Christ
 
  1. If God is Unchanging, then how come he treats people differently at different times… God can’t be unchanging if the way he treats man Changes… This would also mean that the way he dispenses his grace changes. Shouldn’t this be contrary to the whole “in the beginning was the word…” How can the “word” change
Let us take the simple matter of food. Are the same dietary requirements needed today?
I don’t think it is a model of a changing God here, but of a changing people.
 
Don’t have a clue what the official belief is here, but I can certainly see God requiring different things of people after different points in salvation history.

i.e. It would seem unfair to require explicit belief in Christ before Christ had been born, died and rose again.

If this is all that they mean by “Dispensationalism” then I don’t see how that would require a “change” in God.

Chuck
 
As mentioned… I could have a flawed understanding of this theology so please do not take it as a blanket attack…

In Christ
 
I was trying to use the various dietary laws to show that from Genesis to Peter’s vision in Acts, there is a difference in what God requires. It is the most simple explaination that usually strikes a cord in explaining our view.
 
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