R
Rogerteder
Guest
I have been studying Catholic apologetics for over 14 years now. I am currently in a discussion with a Protestant friend about justifcation. Now, we have been talking about the nature of works. If I understand our (the Catholic position ) position correctly, when Paul says in Romans 4:2-3 "Indeed if Abraham was justified on the basis of his works, he has reason to boast; but this was not so in the sight of God. For what does scripture say? ‘Abraham believed God and it was credited to him as righteousness.’ " The “works” Paul would be talking about here is “works” done apart from God’s grace. (or as Scott Hanhn and others teaches ceremonial works of the law like circumcission) These are not “works” done once the person comes to God through grace. Correct? We know this because Paul, in Romans 2:5-13, says that God will judge every man according to his works. These are works done once a person comes to God through grace. This is also why James says in James 2 :20-24 “Do you want proof, you ignoramus,that faith without works is useless? Was not Abraham justified by works when he offered his son Issac upon the altar? You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by works. Thus the scripture was fulfiled that says, ‘Abraham believed and it was credited to him as righteousness,’ and he was called ‘the friend of God.’ You see that man is justified by works and not by faith alone.” Also Paul’s quote, in Romans 4:3, “Abraham believed God and it was credited to him as righteousnes,” was from Genesis 15:6 James clearly stated that Abraham was justified back in Genesis 12. Is this a good explanation of the Catholic position??? (I mean a good explanation of these verses (concerning works) based on the Catholic position. I am not talkign about a comprehensive explanation of the Catholic position.) THANK YOU!! ANY FEEDBACK WILL BE APPRECIATED:thumbsup: