[SIGN][SIGN]JavlSorry, I skipped over this post.
I do not read into bible texts what is not there. I read and understand. Do you? As for one heavenly creature being preferred, might I ask since when has any of these heavenly creatures partaken of creation. I thought God alone created and that no one helped Him.( Isaiah 44:24 ).
As for Proverbs 8:30-31, if you read the whole and not take a passage out of context, it is Wisdom that is spoken of in this proverb.[/SIGN]
The inspired description of wisdom found in the book of Proverbs reads: “Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago. . . . Before the mountains themselves had been settled down, ahead of the hills, I was brought forth as with labor pains . . . When he prepared the heavens I was there; . . . then I came to be beside him as a master worker, and I came to be the one he was specially fond of day by day, I being glad before him all the time, . . . and the things I was fond of were with the sons of men.”
This passage cannot be speaking merely about divine wisdom or wisdom in the abstract. Why not? Because the wisdom that is here described was “produced,” or created, as the beginning of Jehovah’s way. Jehovah God has always existed and has always been wise. (Psalm 90:1, 2) His wisdom had no beginning; it was neither created nor produced. It was not “brought forth as with labor pains.” Furthermore, this wisdom is said to speak and act, representing a person.—Proverbs 8:1.
The book of Proverbs says that long ago wisdom was beside Jehovah, the Creator, as “a master worker.” That certainly applies to Jesus. Long before he came to earth, Jesus worked so closely with Jehovah that God’s Word says: “He is before** all other things **and by means of him all other things were made to exist.”—Colossians 1:17; Revelation 3:14.
web.archive.org/web/20031008013247/mysite.freeserve.com/newworldtranslation/colossians1.15.htm
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jehovah.to/xlation/other.html#_ftnref10#_ftnref10**
Depicting the Son of God as wisdom is appropriate, since he was the One who revealed Jehovah’s wise purposes and decrees. During his prehuman existence, Jesus was God’s Word, or Spokesman. (John 1:1) **He is described as being “the power of God and the wisdom of God.” (1 Corinthians 1:24, 30) **What a beautiful description of the Son of God, whose fondness for mankind moved him to give his life as a ransom in their behalf!—John 3:16.
[SIGN]Also do you accept John 1:3, that Jesus is the Word?[/SIGN]
Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, “All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence”. How could Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into existence through him? SO YOU ARE SAYING: If Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus would have had to create himself.
My Reply: No, because the Bible puts limitations on the word “ALL.”
2 Tim 1:15 “You are aware of the fact that ‘ALL’ who are in Asia turned away from me, among whom are Phygelus and Hermogenes.”–New American Standard Bible
Here the word PAS (=All) obviously refers to ‘a great number’, because the words hOI EN Thi ASIAi do not really include ‘all’ the people in Asia, but the refer explicitly to Christians (non-Christians are already ‘turned away’ from God). Moreover, these words don’t even include ‘all’ of the Christians, because Onesiphuros (and perhaps others) remained loyal to God.
Acts 2:17 “And it shall be, in the last days saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh; And your sons and your daughters shall prophesy…”–Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible
Here, again, PAS (=All) is used in a more restricted sense. The Spirit will hardly be poured out upon “ALL flesh”, since this verse refers exclusively to Christians.
ALSO CLOSELY RELATED TO THIS THOUGHT NOTICE TOO: COL 1:20 Is anyone going to assert that “all things” there mean “all creation”? If so then is it through the Christ that God will reconcile Satan and the disobedient angels, whom are of “all creation”? Or do the faithful angels who are also part of “all creation” in need of “reconciliation”?
So, obviously, the “all things” (Greek PANTA) in verse 20 is restricted to those who are sinful and in need of reconcilliation. Hence, as the Christ was part of “all creation”(v.15) then “all creation” cannot be equivalent to the “all things”(v.16, 17 Greek PANTA) that were created through him and so the “all things” are contextually restricted to creation other than the “firstborn of all creation,” the prehuman Christ!
QUESTION: WOULD YOU THAT THE ALMIGHTY GOD IS “THE FIRSTBORN OF ALL CREATION”?
The context then would make the use of the word “other” certainly tenable and defensible in verses 16 and 17, if not absolutely necessary. The use of the word “other” by the NWT here cannot be deemed “interpolation” any more than the word “other” has been used at Acts 5:29 and other places. It is implied from the context. If something is implied then the translator has the right to include it explicitly in his translation. But this is where we have to go back the the NWT Translation Committee’s “frank admission” that the Trinitarian view of Colossians 1:15-17 influenced how they approached this passage. They wanted a translation that was not only “justifiable” linguistically,grammatically and contextually, but one which without any doubt or uncertainty make the passage say what it means-that the prehuman Christ was indeed a part of creation. That he was a creature- as the rest of the scriptures show.