K
KSU
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Because neither Mark nor Matthew contradict John’s far more detailed account, there is little need to “conflate or harmonize.” Because your opinion regarding Pilate’s intention toward Jesus is contrary to John’s account, your opinions regarding both the reason for and the severity of the scourging is highly suspect.Before I reply to your first reply, I’ll reply to this other one.
Well, look at Braveheart.
You’re right - if we’re talking about John’s gospel, where the scourging is placed in the middle of the trial before Pilate. In Matthew and Mark though, the scourging is a prelude to crucifixion and is at the end of the trial, after the sentence.
Then [Pilate] released for them Barabbas, and having scourged Jesus, delivered him to be crucified. (Matthew 27:26)
So Pilate, wishing to satisfy the crowd, released for them Barabbas, and having scourged Jesus, he delivered him to be crucified. (Mark 15:15)
Now of course a common method among us Christians is to conflate and harmonize all these details together: so the scourging in Matthew and Mark is combined with the one in John. (Or, if we’re going by the more literal approach here, say Jesus was scourged twice.) But I think a nice question to ask ourselves is: why do we conflate and harmonize?
We have many sources describing the person to be crucified being whipped and tortured first, but almost none of them explicitly describe how violent it could be. The only thing that comes close is this quote from Seneca:
Can anyone be found who would prefer to be driven to that infelix lignum (‘unfortunate wood’), already disabled, already distorted, the breast and shoulder deformed into an ugly hump, he would have many reasons to die even beside the crux, than to draw the breath of life among such numbers of outdrawn torments.
Really, our main source come from descriptions of non-crucifixion whippings slaves and non-Roman citizens were subjected to (which were at times brutal). For example, the Jewish historian Josephus talks about a man named Jesus son of Ananias/Ananus who in the 60s kept prophesying about the destruction of Jerusalem. The “leading citizens” were disturbed with his words and beat him, but to no avail. He was then brought before the Roman governor, who had him whipped some more - “flayed to the bone with scourges” (Jewish War 6.5.3) - but still he kept prophesying. Exasperated, the authorities set him free, considering him a madman and a minor annoyance. This Jesus lived for a few more years until he finally died when his predictions came true in 70 - he was hit by a stone hurled from a Roman catapult. In another passage Josephus also talked about some Galileans opponents of his who he had scourged “until the entrails of all of them were exposed” (Jewish War 2.21.5)
You might extrapolate something out of these accounts (i.e. pre-crucifixion floggings were probably similar to these floggings, since crucifixion was also a slave’s/non-citizen’s punishment), but at the same time you need to take into account that crucifixion is meant to keep the victim as alive as possible up on that cross and suffer (so you don’t want the person to die during or soon after the scourging), whereas in some of these texts the scourging itself is meant to kill. So I highly doubt that a pre-crucifixion scourging would be of the same intensity as these two whippings in Josephus.
In the film, Jesus is first beaten with wooden rods. Then comes the flagrum or the flagellum which the soldiers use on Jesus with gusto until He is reduced to a bloody pulp - front and back. If they did that to me, I’d have probably died of traumatic shock. Forget crucifixion or even setting me free.
(Of course one might say, ‘Well Jesus is God, He could have taken in more physical suffering than a normal human could.’ This is where you see some disagreement: one could also argue that since Jesus suffered in His humanity, wouldn’t there be a potential that this idea that ‘Jesus drew on His divine strength to endure superhuman tortures’ could be construed as Jesus somehow ‘cheated’ a bit to suffer some more?)
P.S. Just a little suggestion. Can you divide the quotes you’re answering to when you’re quoting me? (Use the quote tag: QUOTE ] /QUOTE ]) The way you quote kinda makes it a little hard to read for me. Thank you.
patrick, are you saying that John’s account is not historical? I am having difficulty following you.
As to my method of responding to your posts, I’m sorry but it’s the only method I use. I like it because it’s easy and direct, i. e., my response to a particular assertion is in bold and follows immediately after the assertion, so there should be no confusion between us or for any others wishing to join in or monitor our discussion.
It’s much more difficult for me to respond to the type of segmented quote you suggest in a manner other readers can easily follow, so please bear with me. I will try to be more clear.