J
Jon_Hus
Guest
This is my understanding also. Even during the reformation, the churchmen of Rome referred to the vernacular as the vulgar language regardless of what vernacular language was in use at the time/place.Wasn’t the Vulgate called the Vulgate because it was in the language of the “Vulgar” (common) people. I will concede that the Vulgate wasn’t in the hands of your average layman, but that was because of the fact that each Bible had to be hand copied.
Yes, it is of course true that the Bible (or any other written work) had to be hand copied. The invention of moveable type (early 15th century) and the ability to produce numerous copies of books at a reasonable cost was one of several reasons why Luther was sucessful in bringing on the reformation when other reformers previous to him had failed. Still, thoughtful students of history would ask themselves why the average layman in the middle ages in Europe had no real exposure to the Bible or other great works of literature while their counterparts in other more anchient cultures or in other parts of the world during that time did have exposure to literature. Again, a discussion for another time but still a good question to ponder.
One of the reasons why men entered the church and became priests in the middle ages was to learn, to get an education. The rich were able to afford to educate their kids but those in the peasant class were unable. Classical learning in the west involved Latin. When the eastern part of the empire fell to the moores, the clergy fled to the west bringing with them many of the libraries including the greek and hebrew Bible. The greek NT was edited and published in 1516 which was the year before Luther nailed his 95 thesis to the castle door. Luther and some of the other early reformers learned greek and began to see some of the shortcomings of the Latin Scriptures. The rest is as they say, history.