“Reign” and “Kingdom” mean roughly the same thing. I don’t think the intention is to be politically correct at all; “reign” comes from the Latin “regnare,” which means “to rule.” Depending on what Greek word in the NT is being translated, either one could be accurate. Translation is all about making decisions–it involves a fair amount of interpretation. In translations that use “kingdom,” it’s just because the translator favored that word for whatever reason, and in ones that use “reign” the same is true for it. Neither one is more correct, I would think, although in my mind “kingdom” is a more static term for a physical reality; it has a more earthly connotation in some sense (while still referring analogously to the theological reality of the reign of God). Reign, on the other hand, carries a more progressive sense–i.e. it is more action-oriented, and has a since of continuance, and so is more dynamic of a term. I’d likely prefer “reign” for that reason, but neither is incorrect.
Sounds strange to me. A king would reigns over his kingdom, but “reign” and “kingdom” are not interchangeable terms (not that I’m aware of). I’d be very interested to know specifically what verse/s you’re referring to, and what versions you’re looking at. I don’t think I’ve ever seen “reign of God” before (except maybe in reference to something like “The reign of God will be without end”.
It is like comparing apples to oranges in the sense that both are fruit. Reign can have a more static connotation like a physical kingdom, although “realm” would probably be closer in meaning there. Again, the terms are interchangeable–“reign” even comes from the same root word from which are derived all the words in the Romance languages which mean “king.”
Then I heard what sounded like a great multitude, like the roar of rushing waters and like loud peals of thunder, shouting: "Hallelujah! For our Lord God Almighty reigns. (Revelation 19:6)
What version is this from, and what version reads “Hallelujah! For our Lord God Almighty kingdoms”? I don’t think this is an answer to my question, but is an example of what I was aware of already.
My bible is from 1941, authorized by Pope Leo XIII, with an encyclical from Pope Pius XII. A little out dated, yes, I can compare it sometimes (by the wording) to the KJV. But it is the standard bible from 1941 . . . if this answers your question.
That’s because the instance of “reign” there is a verb (if you want to know the Greek, it’s ebasileuse). If one wants to get technical, we’re asking here as to whether the word basileia (as in basileia tou theou, “kingdom/reign of God”) can be translated as “kingdom” or “reign” (noun). I say yes: AFAIK basileia can denote both a ‘kingdom’ in the sense of a realm over which a king rules, and royal ‘reign’ or ‘sovereignty’. It’s one of those instances where English could not fully convey all the possible shades of meaning of a single word.