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John89
Guest
i was wondering why some verses in the nt in the kjv bible were different from some in the catholic bible… ?? god bless
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rwoehmke
Guest
Can provide some for instances? 
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Zenas
Guest
Perhaps you could reply to this post by saying which Catholic bible you are comparing to the KJV because they vary widely. Take for example, Luke 1:28 from the KJV, the NAB and the Douay-Rheims.
KJV: And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
NAB: And coming to her, he said, “Hail, favored one! The Lord is with you.”
Douay-Rheims: And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
In doing any language translation, some editorial bias is bound to creep in. However, the main thing is that the translators are using different source material. The KJV translators used various Greek manuscripts, mainly one called the Textus Receptus which was itself compiled in the 16th Century. NAB translators for the most part opted for the older Greek manuscripts. That is why the text of the NAB is so similar to the popular Protestant NASB and NIV. The Douay-Rheims translation is not from Greek, but rather is largely an English translation of St. Jerome’s Latin Vulgate.
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