"Lamb of God?!? What the

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*… heck do you mean, *‘Behold, the Lamb of God’?!?"

When I read the first chapter of John, I often wonder what the Jews thought when John calls Jesus, “the Lamb of God”.

I mean, I know that “the Lamb” was pre-figured at the Passover. And I know that the Fourth Suffering Servant Song describes His Servant being led like a lamb to slaughter.

But the Jews certainly seemed to expect something different from their Messiah.

So, do you think the Jews had any idea what John was talking about when he called Jesus, “The Lamb of God”?

Any thoughts on this are appreciated!
 
*… heck do you mean, *‘Behold, the Lamb of God’?!?"

When I read the first chapter of John, I often wonder what the Jews thought when John calls Jesus, “the Lamb of God”.

I mean, I know that “the Lamb” was pre-figured at the Passover. And I know that the Fourth Suffering Servant Song describes His Servant being led like a lamb to slaughter.

But the Jews certainly seemed to expect something different from their Messiah.

So, do you think the Jews had any idea what John was talking about when he called Jesus, “The Lamb of God”?

Any thoughts on this are appreciated!
Oh, no, this isn’t the Messiah that God promised his people! Where’s the power, the might, the kingship, the reign over all the Earth? A lamb? So meek, so lowly!

I bet the Jews that heard and read this thought John got it all wrong…
 
Some Jews got it, and some did not. As I am sure you are well aware that many Jews were expecting the Messiah to come and establish Israel as a political earthly kingdom instead of a New Israel as a spiritual people and a Heavenly Kingdom, the Church. To some Jews it all fell into place and they became the first Christians, to some I am sure were let down because they were looking at it in earthly terms and not spiritual terms.
 
*… heck do you mean, *‘Behold, the Lamb of God’?!?"

When I read the first chapter of John, I often wonder what the Jews thought when John calls Jesus, “the Lamb of God”.

I mean, I know that “the Lamb” was pre-figured at the Passover. And I know that the Fourth Suffering Servant Song describes His Servant being led like a lamb to slaughter.

But the Jews certainly seemed to expect something different from their Messiah.

So, do you think the Jews had any idea what John was talking about when he called Jesus, “The Lamb of God”?

Any thoughts on this are appreciated!
Some say that in Galilean Aramaic, the word ‘Lamb’ (talya) was used as a slang word for a ‘male child’ (by contrast, the word for ewe, talitha was used as a slang for daughter).

So on the surface, when John proclaimed Jesus the Lamb of God, some Jews may have thought that he was simply referring to Jesus as the ‘Son of God’ or even ‘God’s kid’.

Yeah John, so he’s God’s kid. When will he start to gather his followers and fight the Romans?

They may have easily lost grasp of the other symbolism that John was intending to show them, namely the Messiah as the Paschal Lamb that is to be sacrificed.
 
*… heck do you mean, *‘Behold, the Lamb of God’?!?"

When I read the first chapter of John, I often wonder what the Jews thought when John calls Jesus, “the Lamb of God”.

I mean, I know that “the Lamb” was pre-figured at the Passover. And I know that the Fourth Suffering Servant Song describes His Servant being led like a lamb to slaughter.

But the Jews certainly seemed to expect something different from their Messiah.

So, do you think the Jews had any idea what John was talking about when he called Jesus, “The Lamb of God”?

Any thoughts on this are appreciated!
In Aramaic, the word for lamb is ‘immer’.
The word for child (some even postulate servant) is ‘talya’ (compare talitha meaning daughter). However, talya seems to have took on a double-meaning because of its similarity to the Hebrew word taleh (which does mean lamb); for example the Targums used the word idiomatically (in Pseudo-Jonathan Targum, Gen. 30:40 and Exodus 1:15).

So on the surface, if John proclaimed Jesus as ‘Talya d’Elaha’ in Aramaic, some Jews may have thought that he was referring to Jesus as the ‘Son of God’ or ‘Servant of God’.

Okay John, so he’s God’s servant (or kid). Just the man we’re looking for. When will he start to gather his followers and fight the Romans?

They may have easily lost grasp of the other meaning, namely the Messiah as the Paschal Lamb that is to be sacrificed.
 
Some Jews got it, and some did not. As I am sure you are well aware that many Jews were expecting the Messiah to come and establish Israel as a political earthly kingdom instead of a New Israel as a spiritual people and a Heavenly Kingdom, the Church. To some Jews it all fell into place and they became the first Christians, to some I am sure were let down because they were looking at it in earthly terms and not spiritual terms.
I think the Jews that came to believe, did so because they saw the signs.

With that thought, what did they think when they heard John’s words? I mean, I don’t expect the Jews heard John’s words and thought, “Yeah, that’s the ticket! This Jesus must be the Messiah after all!”.
 
With that thought, what did they think when they heard John’s words? I mean, I don’t expect the Jews heard John’s words and thought, “Yeah, that’s the ticket! This Jesus must be the Messiah after all!”.
Just as I pointed above, John may have called Jesus ‘Talya d’Elaha’ (having a triple meaning: the Son/Servant/Lamb of God), which may have sent the wrong idea to their heads.

They focused on one meaning of the word, namely: God’s servant (or son) who, like Moses, will free Israel from oppression; yet neglected the other meaning: the Messiah as the Lamb who will be slain.
 
Since we know that all the first followers of Christ were, in fact, Jews, it seems to me that the question answers itself. Typical Jewish teaching often uses Scripture to teach Scripture.

Did the early Christians from among the Jewish population “get it?”
Quite obviously, they did.
 
John had disciples, and I am sure that most of them trusted him. And what has been recorded in the Gospels concerning John saying that to them is very very concise which I imagine that John elaberated much more fully on. Just as Jesus would have had very deep conversations with the 12, but we only get the bare essentials passed on in written form. But my point is that those who heard John say ‘Lamb of God’ would have gotten a good explanation that was backed up with Old Testament quotes and examples. I am sure that John did not just say ‘Lamb of God’ and then just leave them hanging to figure it out themselves. But I am only speculating. A good study on this would be to search out the apocraphal gospels and find some oral traditions handed down that may shed some light on this topic. The Clemintine Homilies and Recognitions may have something too.
 
The literary analysis here is interesting, although I don’t think I’m following it all. I think that ‘lamb of God’ is exactly what John the B meant.

I don’t know what kind of analysis this is, but isn’t this the answer to Abraham’s remark to Isaac, that God will provide the lamb?

Isn’t this the fulfillment of the OT practice of the high priest imputing sins to the “scape goat” or lamb? Wasn’t the baptism of Jesus just such an annointing and imputing of sin to Jesus, as evidence that he “was led” into the wilderness by the Spirit? Isn’t it that, which makes sense of what Jesus said to John, that it must be so that he baptizes Jesus?

The original scape goat was released into the wilderness to be devoured by the wild animals out there. In comparison, Jesus meets and confronts and defeats Satan.

What kind of water are you drinking out there in Sour Lake, N.W.?
 
The literary analysis here is interesting, although I don’t think I’m following it all. I think that ‘lamb of God’ is exactly what John the B meant.
Correct. John did mean that Jesus is the Lamb of God, I’ve no doubt about that; but the word he may have used indicates other valid meanings as well; i.e. when he called Jesus the Lamb of God, at the same time he had ALSO called Him ‘Servant of God’, and ALSO ‘Son of God’ due to the meanings pf the word talya (Son/Servant/Lamb). This is a both/and, not an either/or case.

However, that does not mean John called Jesus the Son of God but not the Lamb of God; he meant all of it, and they all apply fittingly and properly to Jesus.

At first, some of those who heard (such as John’s disciples) may have grasped only one of the meanings of the word, yet may realized the other meanings (perhaps taught more comprehensively to them by John) and believed in Jesus.
I don’t know what kind of analysis this is, but isn’t this the answer to Abraham’s remark to Isaac, that God will provide the lamb?
Isn’t this the fulfillment of the OT practice of the high priest imputing sins to the “scape goat” or lamb? Wasn’t the baptism of Jesus just such an annointing and imputing of sin to Jesus, as evidence that he “was led” into the wilderness by the Spirit? Isn’t it that, which makes sense of what Jesus said to John, that it must be so that he baptizes Jesus?
The original scape goat was released into the wilderness to be devoured by the wild animals out there. In comparison, Jesus meets and confronts and defeats Satan.
What kind of water are you drinking out there in Sour Lake, N.W.?
Good analysis on the goat offered to Azazel and its relation to Jesus.

If I may suggest, another interesting similarity would be the Korban Pesach, the lamb offered on the day of the Passover.

During Temple times, people usually offered a year-old lamb without blemish at the 14th of Nisan. The killing of the sacrifice took place in the court of the Temple at Jerusalem at mid-afternoon (two or three o’ clock; parallel Matt. 27:46-50), and might be performed by a layman, although the blood had to be caught by a priest, and rows of priests with gold or silver cups with rounded bottoms in their hands stood in line from the Temple court to the altar, where the blood of the lamb was sprinkled.

The priest who caught the blood as it dropped from the victim then handed the cup to the priest next to him, receiving from him an empty one, and the full cup was passed along the line until it reached the last priest, who sprinkled its contents on the altar.

The lamb was then hung upon special hooks or sticks and skinned, then the abdomen was then cut open, and the fatty portions intended for the altar were taken out, placed in a vessel, salted, and offered by the priest on the altar, while the remaining entrails likewise were taken out and cleansed.

When the sacrifice was completed and the animal was ready for roasting, each one took their lambs home and roasted them on a spit of pomegranate-wood. No bones might be broken either during the cooking or during the eating (cf. John 19:36).
 
*… heck do you mean, *‘Behold, the Lamb of God’?!?"

When I read the first chapter of John, I often wonder what the Jews thought when John calls Jesus, “the Lamb of God”.

I mean, I know that “the Lamb” was pre-figured at the Passover. And I know that the Fourth Suffering Servant Song describes His Servant being led like a lamb to slaughter.

But the Jews certainly seemed to expect something different from their Messiah.

So, do you think the Jews had any idea what John was talking about when he called Jesus, “The Lamb of God”?

Any thoughts on this are appreciated!
THis is just a request, but could you try to be a little more reverent in your thread titles?
 
The literary analysis here is interesting, although I don’t think I’m following it all. I think that ‘lamb of God’ is exactly what John the B meant.
Oh, I agree. John knew that Jesus was the Paschal Lamb.
I don’t know what kind of analysis this is, but isn’t this the answer to Abraham’s remark to Isaac, that God will provide the lamb?
Agree again.
Isn’t this the fulfillment of the OT practice of the high priest imputing sins to the “scape goat” or lamb? Wasn’t the baptism of Jesus just such an annointing and imputing of sin to Jesus, as evidence that he “was led” into the wilderness by the Spirit? Isn’t it that, which makes sense of what Jesus said to John, that it must be so that he baptizes Jesus?
So, my point is, the Jews are speculating that this is “The Prophet” that people are speaking of. I understand that the anticipation of the coming of the Messiah was reaching a fever pitch during this point in Israel’s history.

So, how can Jesus be this Messiah and at the same time be a Sacrificial Lamb?!?
The original scape goat was released into the wilderness to be devoured by the wild animals out there. In comparison, Jesus meets and confronts and defeats Satan.
What kind of water are you drinking out there in Sour Lake, N.W.?
Well, I can promise you, its not from the brine pits out here. 😉

That’s where we get our enchanting name.
 
THis is just a request, but could you try to be a little more reverent in your thread titles?
I’m sorry if I offended you. I try and keep things a little light-hearted (notice, I used the verb “TRY”), and sometimes it comes off as ir-reverance. I certainly don’t want to leave that impression with you.
 
I’m sorry if I offended you. I try and keep things a little light-hearted (notice, I used the verb “TRY”), and sometimes it comes off as ir-reverance. I certainly don’t want to leave that impression with you.
It’s cool.
 
*… heck do you mean, *‘Behold, the Lamb of God’?!?"

When I read the first chapter of John, I often wonder what the Jews thought when John calls Jesus, “the Lamb of God”.

I mean, I know that “the Lamb” was pre-figured at the Passover. And I know that the Fourth Suffering Servant Song describes His Servant being led like a lamb to slaughter.

But the Jews certainly seemed to expect something different from their Messiah.

So, do you think the Jews had any idea what John was talking about when he called Jesus, “The Lamb of God”?

Any thoughts on this are appreciated!
I think true devoted jews understood. These are the people who understood the meaning of their yearly celebration of passover. They knew that their sons were saved by a ‘lamb’ (in a sense) from Egypt. So they idea of a human Lamb this time not to save people from physical death but spiritual death could be grasped by those who were really devoted.

This is like today’s Christians. Some expect a second coming of Christ which will be for a kind of ‘political’ ruling the earth. They don’t believe that the Kingdom of God is already here no matter how much they read it in the Bible. They believe the Kingdom is not here yet.

God bless
 
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