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DaveBj
Guest
I guess this is as good a place as any for a Latin question. This comes from a Facebook grammar group.
In the phrase "Agnus Dei, qui tollis peccata mundi . . . " it is obvious that the Lamb of God is being addressed. Since “agnus” is a 2nd declension masculine noun, why isn’t it in the vocative, “Agne Dei”?
D
In the phrase "Agnus Dei, qui tollis peccata mundi . . . " it is obvious that the Lamb of God is being addressed. Since “agnus” is a 2nd declension masculine noun, why isn’t it in the vocative, “Agne Dei”?
D