Latin Vulgate usage

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In a way, Jerome with his love (sometimes to a fault) of Hebrew and Jewish interpretation was a sort of unique figure among Christians at that time. He ran against the grain. He was essentially the one that dealt the death blow to the Septuagint in the West. (Origen started the process, Jerome finished it. You might say that the ‘back to the Hebrew and Greek’ mentality the Reformers had is a sort of protracted extension of that.)
St. Jerome had access to Hebrew texts that were substantially older (and perhaps more correct) than the Masoretic texts the Reformers and even modern translators use.

That is one of the arguments supporters of the Vulgate will use. It (since it includes St. Jerome’s Hebrew translations) is perhaps closer to the original texts than later translations based on Masoretic texts.

But I agree with your conclusion! 😉 St. Jerome was the proto-critical translator of the Bible!
 
St. Jerome had access to Hebrew texts that were substantially older (and perhaps more correct) than the Masoretic texts the Reformers and even modern translators use.

That is one of the arguments supporters of the Vulgate will use. It (since it includes St. Jerome’s Hebrew translations) is perhaps closer to the original texts than later translations based on Masoretic texts.

But I agree with your conclusion! 😉 St. Jerome was the proto-critical translator of the Bible!
It’s an often repeated claim (Jerome had access to earlier manuscripts), and it’s true to a point, but we need to qualify.

I said ‘proto-Masoretic’. Yes, the Masoretic text (the one with the vowel points and annotations) is early medieval, but its underlying consonantal text (i.e. one without the vowels) - the one we call ‘proto-Masoretic’ - is ancient. More than half of the biblical fragments found in Qumran belong to this type.

By the time o St. Jerome, the proto-Masoretic text had already pretty much become the de facto text among the Jews; it had already been so since the late 1st-early 2nd century. Even during the time of Jesus, it was already the predominant Hebrew text in Palestine - again as the Dead Sea Scrolls attest to. So it’s not like a particular version was picked at random amongst many - the predominant one drove out the other versions).

Jerome, as far as we can tell, translated from proto-Masoretic manuscripts for the Hebrew OT - which aside from the vowels and the exegesis would have been substantially the same as our Masoretic text (because it was pretty much what would have been available), and he did consult local Jews concerning their interpretation of the text and the finer points of the language.

Where the Vulgate does show difference from the interpretation followed by the Masoretes can often be ascribed to Jerome’s tendency in places to lapse to the ‘traditional’ Septuagint rendering (or the rendering of other Greek versions); for example, in Genesis 47:31, he followed the Greek in interpreting the word mth as Jacob’s matah “staff” rather than his mitah “bed”. In his translation of Psalm 22 (21) from the Hebrew Jerome attempts to make sense of the passage “Like a lion my hands and my feet” (LXX: “They have pierced my hands and my feet”) by following the lead of two Greek versions that were also rendered from a proto-MT version (that of Onkelos and Symmachus). He rendered it “They have bound …” (cf. Onkelos’ “bound” and Symmachus’ “as if seeking to bind”). Hey, that rendering is at least still Christological.

Another is his choosing to understand a particular word or passage in a different way from that adopted by the Masoretes. For example, in Joshua 14:15, you have a rather difficult passage which literally runs: “And the name of Hebron was previously Kiriath-Arba - he was the great man (ha-adam ha-gadol) among the Anakim. And the land rested from war.” The interpretation commonly followed today is that the phrase “he was the great man among the Anakim” refers to the ‘Arba’ of Kiriath-Arba (“City of Arba”). Jerome, however, notices the word adam in the text and instead of choosing to render it is a noun (“man”), takes it as a proper name (“Adam”). And so he renders the passage as: “The name of Hebron before was called Cariath-Arbe: Adam the greatest among the Enacims was laid there: and the land rested from wars.” He then connects this with the popular Jewish belief that Adam was buried along with the other patriarchs in Hebron.

Remember, he was working from a consonant-only text with no vowels; he encountered the problem of the text being ambiguous because the vowels were unmarked (this of course led to his infamous rendition of Moses’ face shining - qaran - as Moses growing a pair of horns - qeren - in Exodus 34).
 
Thanks. I’m trying to understand if the LV was associated with the Canon of the Council of Rome. Did it have a direct relation to the Canon?
The Synods of Hippo and Carthage, where the canon was finalized, took place in the late fourth century.

The pope commissioned Saint Jerome to complete the Latin Vulgate, which he completed I believe around 405 AD.

So, looked at the timeline, these things happened concurrently and it seems likely there was a connection.
 
The Synods of Hippo and Carthage, where the canon was finalized, took place in the late fourth century.

The pope commissioned Saint Jerome to complete the Latin Vulgate, which he completed I believe around 405 AD.

So, looked at the timeline, these things happened concurrently and it seems likely there was a connection.
The commission from Damasus was indeed before the synod of Hippo and Carthage. But was it only for the four Gospels? What constitutes “the vulgate” ???
 
The commission from Damasus was indeed before the synod of Hippo and Carthage. But was it only for the four Gospels? What constitutes “the vulgate” ???
Jerome translated the whole bible to Latin.
He used various sources from Hebrew, Greek, and Old Latin.
This was used as the primary source of scripture until the 16th century.
 
Jerome translated the whole bible to Latin.
Please provide a reference for this.
He used various sources from Hebrew, Greek, and Old Latin.
This was used as the primary source of scripture until the 16th century.
I think his translation slowly became the most trusted. They weren’t the only copies of Scripture, however.
 
Please provide a reference for this.

I think his translation slowly became the most trusted. They weren’t the only copies of Scripture, however.
Google Saint Jerome or Latin Vulgate
The easiest place to go will be Wikipedia
It’s all there.
 
They even list the sources that Jerome used by section of the bible
Sorry, I was laughing at the vagueness of your post. I have looked but have not found…

I’m not trying to be a smart ***! I really have tried to find this out.
 
Jerome translated the whole bible to Latin.
He used various sources from Hebrew, Greek, and Old Latin.
This was used as the primary source of scripture until the 16th century.
He did not, if by the whole Bible you mean all 73 canonical books. Jerome only worked on the 39 protocanonicals (+ the deuterocanonical parts of Daniel and Esther), two deuteros (Tobit, Judith) and the four gospels. Just as I mentioned earlier, the other books were not his work.

In fact in some of the earliest manuscripts of the Vulgate (those of the Italian text like Codex Amiatinus), the book of Baruch is missing.
 
The commission from Damasus was indeed before the synod of Hippo and Carthage. But was it only for the four Gospels? What constitutes “the vulgate” ???
Another important point: the Vulgate was not originally called ‘the Vulgate’. For obvious reasons, Jerome did not give either his revision of the gospels or his translations from the Hebrew any name (after all, he apparently did not see these translations as comprising a single set or collection). His works literally had no proper name until the 13th century AFAIK, when people started to call his translations the versio vulgata - not because it was written in vernacular street (Vulgar) Latin, but because by then it had become the one ‘commonly-used version’ that Latin Rite western European Christians used.

(The phrase versio vulgata already existed in Jerome’s day, but back then it referred to something different: the Greek Septuagint, which was the nearly-universal common version among Christians back then.)
 
He did not, if by the whole Bible you mean all 73 canonical books. Jerome only worked on the 39 protocanonicals (+ the deuterocanonical parts of Daniel and Esther), two deuteros (Tobit, Judith) and the four gospels. Just as I mentioned earlier, the other books were not his work.

In fact in some of the earliest manuscripts of the Vulgate (those of the Italian text like Codex Amiatinus), the book of Baruch is missing.
I thought i read, somewhere, that its uncertain how many New Testament books Jerome translated.
Another important point: the Vulgate was not originally called ‘the Vulgate’. For obvious reasons, Jerome did not give either his revision of the gospels or his translations from the Hebrew any name (after all, he apparently did not see these translations as comprising a single set or collection). His works literally had no proper name until the 13th century AFAIK, when people started to call his translations the versio vulgata - not because it was written in vernacular street (Vulgar) Latin, but because by then it had become the one ‘commonly-used version’ that Latin Rite western European Christians used.

(The phrase versio vulgata already existed in Jerome’s day, but back then it referred to something different: the Greek Septuagint, which was the nearly-universal common version among Christians back then.)
One thing that gives me doubt regarding the supposed “Damasene decree” (and the 73 book canon) from the Council of Rome, is the fact that Jerome did dispute the deutero books. If he was at the Council, and knowing he had such respect for the Bishop of Rome, why would he not have accepted/defended a Canon pronounced there?
 
I thought i read, somewhere, that its uncertain how many New Testament books Jerome translated.
We only have direct evidence for the gospels. Jerome claimed that he had “restored the New Testament to its Greek original” in his work De viris illustribus (On Famous Men), but scholars are still debating whether we should take his claim at face value or whether he was merely exaggerating or expressing an intention that he never fully realized. Nowadays the general opinion seems to lean on the latter, considering a number of factors.

The thing is, when Jerome quotes from the Epistles in his other works he actually often provides a version that differs from the Vulgate text. (Sometimes he even seems to reject readings which are found in the Vulgate version of the epistles!) Jerome wrote commentaries for Galatians, Ephesians, Philemon and Titus, but he never attributes the Latin text he uses there to himself or referred to a translation that he would have made, but often uses the phrase Latinus interpres of the translator and criticizes said translator on several occasions.
One thing that gives me doubt regarding the supposed “Damasene decree” (and the 73 book canon) from the Council of Rome, is the fact that Jerome did dispute the deutero books. If he was at the Council, and knowing he had such respect for the Bishop of Rome, why would he not have accepted/defended a Canon pronounced there?
St. Jerome’s dislike for the deuteros stems from his Hebraica veritas mentality. He wasn’t very positive about the deuteros mainly because the Jews did not consider them Scripture, not to mention that many of them only existed in Greek. (He recognized that a few books like 1 Maccabees had a Semitic original, so it’s not like his problem was with the language; it’s more with their reception among the Jews.)

You can actually see a sort of evolution in Jerome’s thought as he was translating the Old Testament.

When he was translating Samuel-Kings (the very first OT books he translated) in 390, he still sort of held them in something close to disregard. He thought that the number of the protocanon was perfect: twenty-two books (five books of the Torah, Joshua, Judges-Ruth, Samuel, Kings, Isaiah, Jeremiah-Lamentations, Ezekiel, the Twelve Prophets, Job, Psalms, Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, Song of Songs, Daniel, Chronicles, Ezra-Nehemiah, Esther) equals the twenty-two letters of the Hebrew alphabet. If you choose to count Lamentations and Ruth as separate books, that’s still okay, says Jerome, because twenty-four books equals the twenty-four elders that stand before the throne of God according to the Apocalypse.

Midway through his project, Jerome was now saying: “just as the Church also reads the books of Judith, Tobias, and the Maccabees, but does not receive them among the canonical Scriptures, so also one may read these two scrolls for the strengthening of the people, (but) not for confirming the authority of ecclesiastical dogmas.” He now held them as valuable reading, although not still quite ‘Scriptural’. ‘Inspirational’, but not ‘inspired’.

Finally, by the time he was working on Tobit and Judith (the last OT books he worked on) - this was somewhere around 405 to 407 - Jerome was essentially saying, okay fine, since the Church is now saying they’re inspired Scripture, they’re Scripture.

“But because this book [Judith] is found by the Nicene Council to have been counted among the number of the Sacred Scriptures, I have acquiesced to your request….” (Prologue to Judith)

“For the studies of the Hebrews rebuke us and find fault with us, to translate this for the ears of Latins contrary to their * canon. But it is better to be judging the opinion of the Pharisees to displease and to be subject to the commands of bishops.” (Prologue to Tobit)

Old habits sort of die hard, however, since one might say Jerome’s translation approach to Tobit and Judith was freer than the other books. Also, he never got around to translating the other deuteros. (I think he did the Greek bits of Daniel and Esther only because since he was already working on those books, he might as well get around to that.)*
 
Sorry, I was laughing at the vagueness of your post. I have looked but have not found…

I’m not trying to be a smart ***! I really have tried to find this out.
Here’s the link! 😉

It’s a well written article, and appears to confirm much of what Patrick is saying. 🙂
Maybe Patrick had a hand in the article?
 
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