Q
Qualiteee
Guest
I know it’s difficult to conceive of this notion but nevertheless this must be acknowledged.
God, as the Supreme Arbiter of life and death has a prerogative that stands upon this:
If these whole sale slaughters were truly by the direct demand of “The Sovereign Arbiter” he is the Just judge of all reward and punishment. God, by commanding the Israelites gave them this supernatural decree to be the executioners of his sentence against the neighboring people and is within God’s right to fully assign and consequently the Isrealites to enforce.
To say that God is not perfectly moral, is tantamount to God being an immoral being by forgiving us of our sins. I mean, why would he forgive a mass murderer simply by that person having a change of heart of faith at the baptismal font? All sin (mortal and venial) including all penalty for sin (temporal and eternal) is washed away. Would God be an accomplice of sorts? Or what of his Omniscience and Ubiquity? Is he an accomplice as that murderer at this very moment is preying upon a child somewhere in this world wielding a knife with a firm intention of stabbing and raping them to death, yet doesn’t prevent it from happening?
Who’s to say that supernaturally God prevented those people from experiencing any pain during their slaughter? Or is pain the only “immoral” part of the matter?
Who’s to say that supernaturally those people were rewarded with something far greater than their earthly life by simply having to be removed out of the way for God’s Divine plan to unravel for the Israelites?
God binds the natural law upon man but God is not bound to it himself because he can not sin simply because he can not offend himself.
God, as the Supreme Arbiter of life and death has a prerogative that stands upon this:
If these whole sale slaughters were truly by the direct demand of “The Sovereign Arbiter” he is the Just judge of all reward and punishment. God, by commanding the Israelites gave them this supernatural decree to be the executioners of his sentence against the neighboring people and is within God’s right to fully assign and consequently the Isrealites to enforce.
To say that God is not perfectly moral, is tantamount to God being an immoral being by forgiving us of our sins. I mean, why would he forgive a mass murderer simply by that person having a change of heart of faith at the baptismal font? All sin (mortal and venial) including all penalty for sin (temporal and eternal) is washed away. Would God be an accomplice of sorts? Or what of his Omniscience and Ubiquity? Is he an accomplice as that murderer at this very moment is preying upon a child somewhere in this world wielding a knife with a firm intention of stabbing and raping them to death, yet doesn’t prevent it from happening?
Who’s to say that supernaturally God prevented those people from experiencing any pain during their slaughter? Or is pain the only “immoral” part of the matter?
Who’s to say that supernaturally those people were rewarded with something far greater than their earthly life by simply having to be removed out of the way for God’s Divine plan to unravel for the Israelites?
God binds the natural law upon man but God is not bound to it himself because he can not sin simply because he can not offend himself.