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SteveVH
Guest
I would only say that you need to read my response, and especially Soren1’s comments that followed, one more time. You are not addressing the issue, Parker. Paul was saying that we are no longer subject to the old law. We are now subject to the law of love. He uses the analogy of marriage, (not “marriage to the law” in some metaphorical sense) as Soren1 has pointed out, because it was something they already understood; that upon death, one is freed from the marriage covenant with the deceased spouse. Taken to its logical conclusion, if we are freed from the marriage covenant with the deceased spouse then we certainly are not married for eternity. He is demostrating a truth being taught by using a truth already understood by those to whom he was speaking.Hi, Soren1 and SteveVH,
I suppose that you may want a response about the marriage analogy Paul used in his epistle to the Romans.
It again is somewhat of a surprise, but perhaps “not very” since you certainly have free will choice to believe that his analogy meant the Jews having been “married” to the old law, were now free from the old law.
I suggest that he wasn’t saying that, at all, as many verses point out. They still needed to view the commandments as needing to be lived and obeyed–so there were still aspects of the old law and covenant that were still in effect under the new covenant and under “grace”.
He seemed to be writing about a problem among the Roman converts, that they were thinking they could sin, break the commandments, and still have grace apply because of the new covenant.
He refuted that belief, while using the analogy of Jewish marriage under the law, which said a woman could remarry after her husband had died; Paul was writing that elements of the “old marriage” were still in effect with the “new marriage”–so the “old marriage” to the law wasn’t completely dead, and wasn’t completely gone away. (Some aspects were, such as circumcision–but not the entire “marriage”.) The Ten Commandments are as eternal as God.
So to say that the old covenant was “dead” seems to me to be an incorrect understanding of the analogy and certainly of the doctrine. They still needed to look at the Ten Commandments and the great commandments which had been given under the “law”, as still in full effect, and that they should not “sin, that grace abound.”
So we have completely different views and perspectives, and never the twain shall meet.![]()
Any other interpretation of this is simply illogical based upon the simple purpose of analogies; to demonstrate an unkown truth by comparison to a known truth. If the unkown truth is compared to a premise which is not true to begin with the analogy fails completely.