You’re missing the point of my question. Whether Paul was married previously or not is not the point. It is clear from the passage that he is encouraging celibacy for all followers of Christ who can tolerate it - whether they were previously married or had never been married: And he goes on to say…
[32] I want you to be free from anxieties. The unmarried man is anxious about the affairs of the Lord, how to please the Lord;
[33] but the married man is anxious about worldly affairs, how to please his wife,
[34] and his interests are divided. And the unmarried woman or girl is anxious about the affairs of the Lord, how to be holy in body and spirit; but the married woman is anxious about worldly affairs, how to please her husband.
[35] I say this for your own benefit, not to lay any restraint upon you, but to promote good order and to secure your undivided devotion to the Lord.
[36] If any one thinks that he is not behaving properly toward his betrothed, if his passions are strong, and it has to be, let him do as he wishes: let them marry – it is no sin.
[37] But whoever is firmly established in his heart, being under no necessity but having his desire under control, and has determined this in his heart, to keep her as his betrothed, he will do well.
[38] So that he who marries his betrothed does well; and he who refrains from marriage will do better.
[39] A wife is bound to her husband as long as he lives. If the husband dies, she is free to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.
[40] But in my judgment she is happier if she remains as she is. And I think that I have the Spirit of God. 1 Cor 7:32-40
Hi, Robert,
I think it would make a substantial difference in understanding that chapter to know whether Paul had been previously married, or not, because it would change the frame of reference about his advice. We note that his advice about “virgins” is “no commandment of the Lord” (v. 25)–but is his own advice, and is given “for the present distress” (v. 26) and is given with the assumption that “the time is short” wherein “they that have wives be as though they had none…” (v. 29)
The context about “the present distress” is given in the early part of the epistle–in that the members of the church in Corinth were breaking up into different factions and having contention (1 Corinthians 1:10-13), and thus no longer had the “unity of the faith”.
Verse 29 uses the term “the time is short”. So the situation Paul is describing was considered a “short time” by him, and should not be assumed to be an entire lifetime.
We note that he writes about “betrothed” in the sense that a couple is promised to each other in marriage, so it is not a question of whether they are eventually going to marry–it is a question of when the right time to do that will be. (v. 36-38)
So I disagree that the chapter is teaching that celibacy for one’s entire life would be a good thing or a “better” thing. Verse 38 is talking about that particular time of “present distress”.
The inspiration Joseph Smith received about this chapter, as has already been discussed on this thread, was that verse 29 was alluding to the call “to the ministry” of certain brethren who would thus be focusing on the work of the ministry (preaching the gospel) in their calling for that particular period of time.
Peace to you also, and have a wonderful day.