**Restoration **– Jesus was to be sent again to restore or restitute all things. If everything needs to be restored, logically these things got lost or corrupted. Jesus appeared to Joseph Smith many times and sent other celestial messengers to restore all things. … Acts 3:19-20
You have listed so many proof-texts that it is it difficult to respond to the whole. I would be more persuaded if you could just make one verse stick, rather than list many, not all of which even deal with the topics at hand. I will begin with the first one.
The restoration of all things refers to the renewing of heaven and earth in the second coming of Christ, as seen in Rev 21:5: “And he that sat upon the throne said, Behold, I make all things new.” While you are correct that a total restoration implies a previous total loss, you make an unwarranted assumption that the loss of all things occurs in the Church after the time when Peter is speaking. In fact, all things were lost at the time when Adam fell.
That Peter is not referring to the Church as such can be seen from his claim that the restoration was “spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began,” and yet Paul and Peter both write elsewhere that the mystery of the church was not disclosed to past generations. (cf. Col 1:25-27; 1 Pet 1:10-12)
The Twelve Apostle meant to be the ongoing position because it is the foundation…Catholics don’t have the foundation, which is the Apostles and Prophets.
“Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellow citizens with the saints, and of the household of God; *And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, *Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone; ” Eph 2:19-20
The Catholic church is build upon the foundation of bishops, which is not in conformity with the scriptures. Bishops have the Aaronic priesthood and NOT the Melchizedek.
The Catholic Church bases its authority on a twofold source: Scripture and Tradition, both of which originate in divine inspiration. The Scriptures are written by prophets, and tradition (which includes sacraments as well as authority structures) is derived from the Apostles. On this basis alone, it is difficult to see why this text should be a problem for Catholics.
It is very important to be note that “built” here translates a passive Greek participle in the perfect tense, which would be more accurately rendered as “having been built.” What the perfect tense indicates in Greek is
an action that has been completed in the past but whose effects continue in the present. It is therefore consistent with this text to say that the work of the prophets and apostles was a complete act of revelation, which achieved the building of the Church, and that the Church remains complete in itself by virtue of that past action – which is just what we should expect if Catholicism were true. You are wrong, therefore to assume that to be a foundation Apostleship must be an “ongoing position.” Rather, the effects of the work of Prophets and Apostle must be ongoing.
Your objection about the church being built on the foundation of bishops ignores the fact that bishops derive their authority by descent from the Apostles, whose formal capacity in the Church was one of Bishop. “Apostle” is not an office in the Church
per se, but is personal designation of someone who received his episcopacy as a direct witness of the resurrected Christ.
What kind of priesthood did Jesus have? We know he had the Melchizedek. “Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedek.” Heb 5:10…
A Melchizedek priest is someone who holds the priesthood by right of kingship. That is what Ps. 110 is about. Melchizedek, David, and Christ are priests of the same order because they are all kings. If Jesus confers the priesthood upon someone, he does not confer his unique kingship. The person receiving the priesthood from him therefore has a different priesthood inasmuch as it is derivative from Christ’s. As King, Christ holds his priesthood uniquely in a non-derivative way, although others may share in it by derivation from him.
How about Abraham, Moses and other Prophets? They had the Melchizedek Priesthood! And many of them practiced Polygamy!
The Old Testament is non favorable to polygamy, including (and especially) in the case of the patriarchs. That Abraham practices polygamy does not imply that polygamy is therefore a virtue. He takes Hagar as a wife out of unbelief – or rather from compliance with his wife’s unbelief that he can have a son in her advanced age. The result is a tragedy, with Hagar and Isaac left in the wild, and God enforces circumcision upon Abraham as a mortification to atone for it. To justify polygamy as the “Law of Abraham” as the early Mormons did is to miss the point of the whole story.
The allowance of exceptional marriage practices in the old covenant was due a leniency in the Old Law in view of man’s hardness of heart. Christ makes this point about divorce in Matt 19, saying that “from the beginning it was not so.” (19:8) By invoking “the beginning,” he means that in the perfection of man’s creation as found in Eden, before sin entered the world, in the true normative model for how marriage is to be understood in the New Covenant. This is a monogamous form of marriage, in which “the *twain *shall be one flesh,” and it is with regard to it that Jesus says, “what therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.” (Matt 19:6) The question that matters here is not “Is polygamy allowable?” but “Is polygamy allowable in the New Covenant?” Even if the answer to the first wuestion is “yes,” the answer to the second is, “no.”