P
pmccombs
Guest
Unlike other Mormons, I don’t link the apostasy with Greek philosophy because I don’t think there was an apostasy. Maybe my Church is right, but I doubt it. To accept an apostasy, I must first accept that there is something called Orthodoxy and that there was an original, monolithic Church. I find the theses of Walter Bauer and Bart Ehrman more convincing to my mind (I have no doubt that there have been volumes of apologia mounted against these two gentlemen!).Like other Mormons, you link the Apostasy with Greek Philosophy changing Christian belief within the first century. I asked for an example of a change: Christ and the Apostles taught _______ and because of the Greek idea of _________, Christians were teaching ________ by the year 101AD. You seem to make the same claim over and over without an example.
Also, unlike other Mormons, I don’t accept that the Mormon church is at all distinct in its claim to receive guidance from God, partly because I’ve read these passages from Orthodox theologians who have discussed the influence of philosophy in the very context of divine guidance.
Another thing I ought to point out is that Mormons don’t have a particular doctrine of when, exactly, the apostasy took place. Was the church in apostasy by 101AD? Maybe some think so, maybe others don’t. The prevailing view among Catholics here seems to be that the Mormons teach a very early apostasy happening within the first century with the death of the last original apostle. I think the prevailing view among Mormons (those who think about it at all) is that apostasy was a process that didn’t happen at once, nor equally everywhere in the Church. Mormon apologists state that “It is unclear exactly when all priesthood authority was lost.” They offer an opinion that this happened sometime in the mid-second century AD, and point to Hermas’ writings as evidence.
Well, I’d fill in your blanks like this:
“Christ and the Apostles taught a limited an incomplete theology (regarding the nature of deity, of evil, etc.) in the New Testament and because of Neoplatonism, Christians were teaching privatio boni and apophatic theology by the middle ages. Aristotlean philosophy took the stage with Scotus’ univocity of being in the high medieval period.”
I’m sure liturgical developments had certain influences as well, but I haven’t investigated much along those lines. We don’t find the liturgy in the New Testament, and even the Catholic Encyclopedia says the early Eucharist was “fluid and variable” in many details.