Leaven, no leaven...when, why

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peso73

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Wondering when the Roman Catholic Church began using unleavened bread as opposed to the normal bread and why.
Anyone? 🤷
 
Wondering when the Roman Catholic Church began using unleavened bread as opposed to the normal bread and why.
Anyone? 🤷
There’s no indication that the Roman Church ever used leavened bread, and there’s no record of a switch. It wasn’t considered an issue until the Greeks complained in the 10th century.

The Armenian Church, not in Communion with Rome, also uses unleavened bread and has done so for all its recorded history.

Peace and God bless!
 
There’s no indication that the Roman Church ever used leavened bread, and there’s no record of a switch. It wasn’t considered an issue until the Greeks complained in the 10th century.

The Armenian Church, not in Communion with Rome, also uses unleavened bread and has done so for all its recorded history.

Peace and God bless!
well, I always thought we used unleavened bread because that was the kind of bread they used at passover in Jesus’ day, is that true? And if it is, then why did the eastern churches use leavened bread?
 
From a post I made here
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=190785

One difference is that the west and east disagree if the Last Supper used leavened bread. The synoptics lead one to believe the Last Supper was on the day of Passover, which would have meant no leavening. The Gospel of John leads us to believe it was the day before Passover, which means there could have been leavening. Some then argue Jesus being a first born wouldn’t have been allowed leavening on the day before, either.

The east ties the leavened bread to three things: Risen Christ, unleavened bread being viewed as a bread of sorrow in Judaism, and the pre-Passover Last Supper.

The west ties the unleavened bread to different things: the fulfillment of the Jewish law and the anemnesis event of the Eucharistic liturgy and the Passover supper.
 
From a post I made here
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=190785

One difference is that the west and east disagree if the Last Supper used leavened bread. The synoptics lead one to believe the Last Supper was on the day of Passover, which would have meant no leavening. The Gospel of John leads us to believe it was the day before Passover, which means there could have been leavening. Some then argue Jesus being a first born wouldn’t have been allowed leavening on the day before, either.

The east ties the leavened bread to three things: Risen Christ, unleavened bread being viewed as a bread of sorrow in Judaism, and the pre-Passover Last Supper.

The west ties the unleavened bread to different things: the fulfillment of the Jewish law and the anemnesis event of the Eucharistic liturgy and the Passover supper.
Hmmm…once again, thank you Mr. Woodstock! 🙂
 
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