Leavened Bread for Eucharist?

  • Thread starter Thread starter AFarmer
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
There is some question as to this. Was it the Passover meal or not? The Gospel of John seems to have the Last Supper occurring before Passover.
The Last Supper was indeed a meal…but NOT the initial institution of the Eucharist. It was seapate and unrelated to the “meal.” It is the sacrament of life.

A supper in and of itself is for daily carnal sustainance…but the Eucharist is the Bread of Life for eternity.

But I strayed. The Last Supper was the night before Passover and it was the meal that preceded Passover. It was the “Eve of Passover.” Next day Friday was Passover which required sacrifice…
 
Is the use of bleached flour allowed? Most communion hosts are suspiciously white – is this done natural oxidation or via added chemicals?

Also, what sort of process is used to ensure that yeast does not inadvertently contaminate the dough? Yeast is a pretty ubiquitous presence in the environment (as anyone who has ever battled thrush can attest to.)
The hosts in my parish are beige colour with little brown specks in them. They are not at all white.
 
my parish offers gluten free communion wafers for those with coeliacs disease, I had assumed this would be made using non wheat flour. Is there some way to remove the gluten from wheat flour or is it possible to get special permission to use something else?
 
canon law is clear enough on the matter: only wheat breads may be used.

So, no rye, rice, millet, corn or other grains.

Whether or not it is “Wheat flour and water” alone is less clear.
 
What is “the use of intinction?”
Intinction is dipping the Host into the Precious Blood or scooping the Sacred Body which has been soaking in the Precious Blood out with a spoon (that is how the Byzantine Rite priests give the Eucharist).
 
Leavened bread is used by the Orthodox.

Unleavened bread is used by Catholics.

Actually, Brother Rich, I’m thinking leavened bread in the Catholic Eucharist would invalidate the sacrament under the rubric of ‘valid matter’ (which it would not be for us). Not just illicit, but invalid as well. I can see the confusion, because obviously the intent to consecrate would be there by the priest, but isn’t it like the putative ‘female ordinations’? You can say the words and have the intent to ordain, but without ‘valid matter’–it can’t be done.

To the OP–if this was in the 70s, 80s, or 90s, it was probably done innocently (I cannot count how many times I --then unknowingly–thought I was receiving a licit, valid Eucharist when I chowed down on the sweet, home-made, ‘real bread’ Eucharists offered at my Catholic college, and my Catholic parishes, in those times. )
The Byzantine Catholics use leavened bread. Untill relatively recently(19th century) the Maronite Catholics used leavened bread as well.

It would not invalidate the sacrament.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top