T
trickster
Guest
In a posting elsewhere I have been critisized as an Arianist, so I want to restate what I said and see how it resonates.
By indicating that Jesus of Nazareth was “fully human” that means he was also limited in his human form. That assumes that he operated within a given time, place and space in first century Israel. He operated within a socio-cultural context that was very patriarchial in its orientation and hence he chose men to be his followers and apostles…the church has since then argued that this meant an all male priesthood, etc.
Jesus had a pre-existence, a human existence and a cosmic or his existence as “the Christ”. The three states were eternal they had no beginning nor end, yet they had specific time frames…or at the very minimum the 30 or so years on earth was a specific time frame.
The basic thought, question or reflection that I have is this; could it be that we need to leave Jesus of Nazareth in his time and place (not to ignore or disregard) but to understand the selection of men as simply an act reflective of the time, space and socio-cultural context in which Jesus operated? If this is so, then does that mean Jesus as Christ would necessarily be bound to that socio-cultural context?"
The “Beautific Vision” and the nature of his “fullness” as God are the two components that were used to say that the Jesus in human form could see the future and “knew that there would be feminists”, etc. and that Jesus in Christ form would not be contradictory - which makes sense to me - but it doesn’t mean that Jesus Christ would be limited to the socio-cultural context of first century Israel…
Also, Jesus of Nazareth, even with a Beautific Vision, how could he know the future when the future is dependent upon humanity’s decisions, their conscience or their choice not to obey God’s will…the best thing that the beautific vision could of offered Jesus was a “best case scenario”…or a scenario contingent upon human choices throughout the centrury…
Thoughts.
Bruce
By indicating that Jesus of Nazareth was “fully human” that means he was also limited in his human form. That assumes that he operated within a given time, place and space in first century Israel. He operated within a socio-cultural context that was very patriarchial in its orientation and hence he chose men to be his followers and apostles…the church has since then argued that this meant an all male priesthood, etc.
Jesus had a pre-existence, a human existence and a cosmic or his existence as “the Christ”. The three states were eternal they had no beginning nor end, yet they had specific time frames…or at the very minimum the 30 or so years on earth was a specific time frame.
The basic thought, question or reflection that I have is this; could it be that we need to leave Jesus of Nazareth in his time and place (not to ignore or disregard) but to understand the selection of men as simply an act reflective of the time, space and socio-cultural context in which Jesus operated? If this is so, then does that mean Jesus as Christ would necessarily be bound to that socio-cultural context?"
The “Beautific Vision” and the nature of his “fullness” as God are the two components that were used to say that the Jesus in human form could see the future and “knew that there would be feminists”, etc. and that Jesus in Christ form would not be contradictory - which makes sense to me - but it doesn’t mean that Jesus Christ would be limited to the socio-cultural context of first century Israel…
Also, Jesus of Nazareth, even with a Beautific Vision, how could he know the future when the future is dependent upon humanity’s decisions, their conscience or their choice not to obey God’s will…the best thing that the beautific vision could of offered Jesus was a “best case scenario”…or a scenario contingent upon human choices throughout the centrury…
Thoughts.
Bruce