Legitimacy of the State/Civil Authority in Catholicism

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Gavroche

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The issues of our duty as Catholics towards our civil authority is something that has confused me for quite some time and was hoping for some discussion and good information anyone happens to have on the topic.

Two relevant passages from the Catechism are as follows (edited and emphasis mine, found at:scborromeo.org/ccc/p3s2c2a4.htm#2234) :
2235 Those who exercise authority should do so as a service. "Whoever would be great among you must be your servant."41 The exercise of authority is measured morally in terms of its divine origin, its reasonable nature and its specific object. No one can command or establish what is contrary to the dignity of persons and the natural law.
2238 Those subject to authority should regard those in authority as representatives of God, who has made them stewards of his gifts:43 "Be subject for the Lord’s sake to every human institution. . . . Live as free men, yet without using your freedom as a pretext for evil; but live as servants of God."44 Their loyal collaboration includes the right, and at times the duty, to voice their just criticisms of that which seems harmful to the dignity of persons and to the good of the community.
So concerning this, I have been puzzled about how all of this works in terms of the eyes of God, and the main question really is: what makes a civil authority legitimate in the eyes of God?

The bolded portion I find confusing here, because, let’s say that a coup d’etat takes place in a particular government, and the new leaders acquire power unlawfully from the previous government. Do the people now need to see these new leaders as representatives of God and their legitimate civil authority? Or imagine the cases of natives, having their lands seized and political institutions overthrown by an imperial or colonizing power, are the natives now under a moral obligation to obey this new government, and if so, on what basis?

So what is the mark of legitimacy among those who claim to exercise legitimate authority? Many state, or state-like institutions can claim authority, but claims will contradict, or claims might be entirely false, but in the end what is it that makes a claim to power legitimate or not?

And here are some notable instances where confusion seems to exist for me in regards to what is in the Catechism…

Was the Vichy government in France after the defeat at the hands of the Nazis a legitimate authority?

Was the US authority over land taken from Native American tribes legitimate, and did those Natives living there acquire a moral obligation obey the US government?

Was the control exercised by European colonial powers legitimate in places like Africa, South America, Asia, etc.?

Was the Soviet control over Poland and Eastern European countries after WW2 legitimate?

And in these cases, would people be obliged to obey these authorities and consider their leaders as “representatives of God, and stewards of his gifts” as said in paragraph 2238 of the Catechism? If so, on what grounds?
 
I would say this: To the extent that civil authorities are acting as a representative of God(whether they know it or not), they act as a legitimate authority. But more than that, civil authority has been set up by God and therefore should be obeyed unless God specifically contradicts that authority.
 
I would say this: To the extent that civil authorities are acting as a representative of God(whether they know it or not), they act as a legitimate authority. But more than that, civil authority has been set up by God and therefore should be obeyed unless God specifically contradicts that authority.
But this doesn’t answer the question; the question isn’t whether a legitimate authority acts as a representative of God, it is rather how do we determine what authority is legitimate on that basis? Do a conquered people now owe obedience to their conquerers? If a seizure of power occurs as a result of an atrocity or an unjust war, how does it make it right that the victimized people owe obedience to the group that seized power in such an immoral manner? Imagine you are living in Poland in the late 1930s and see your country taken over once by Nazi Germany and then immediately after the war (which was started precisely because your country was invaded) under the control of the Soviet Union, would a Pole living in these countries owe their obedience to the Nazis or the Soviets, and if so, why?
 
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