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Larry1700
Guest
What does Jewish tradition say about pluralities in this sentence from Genesis:
Let us make man in our image.
Let us make man in our image.
Rashi gives the “Royal We” decree. Another explanation is that GOd was being polite by involving the angels, even though it is only God and God alone who creates man, as can be seen in the verse that follows.Thanks for your replies, but with all due respect, I was hoping for replies from Jews themselves – hopefully ones who have studied the commentaries (sorry, don’t remember: Talmud? Haddith? Midrash?)
Do you know if there are any other parts in scripture where God uses the “Royal We”?Rashi gives the “Royal We” decree. Another explanation is that GOd was being polite by involving the angels, even though it is only God and God alone who creates man, as can be seen in the verse that follows.
Elohim is used only (I think) in the beginning of Genesis. It is a more impersonal term and more appropriate to use in the opening chapters, when we have no personal relationship with God.Do you know if there are any other parts in scripture where God uses the “Royal We”?
When the king uses the royal we to say “we abhor the enemy” he is hoping that he is speaking on behalf of his people. He needs his people to back up his abhorring the enemy because he can’t do it on his own.I believe many say that God was using the “royal we”. For example kings would make proclamations referring to themselves in the plural such as “We will this to be done” or “We abhor the enemy”.
If this is the case then we are created in both the image of God and his angels when you read;Rashi gives the “Royal We” decree. Another explanation is that GOd was being polite by involving the angels, even though it is only God and God alone who creates man, as can be seen in the verse that follows.
Yes.Are the angels also created in the image of God?
I’m not sure what the big issue is here. I believe most christian scholars admit that its use in Genesis has nothing to do with the doctrine of the trinity. Us and Our are both royal plurals.If this is the case then we are created in both the image of God and his angels when you read;
Let us make man in our image.
Are the angels also created in the image of God?
Eric
The plural pronoun “Us” is most likely a majestic plural from the standpoint of Hebrew grammar and syntax. Jerry Falwell (Executive Editor), Liberty Annotated Study Bible, Lynchburg: Liberty University, 1988, p. 8.I have not ever taken the time to look up the Church’s teaching on this, but I like to believe that the plural words in Genesis refer to God the Trinity. There’s another verse in Genesis speaking of the Spirit of God moving on the face of the waters. In John, we see “In the beginning was the Word (Jesus), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”
That’s not true at all. Christians use this verse quite often to show God is Triune.I’m not sure what the big issue is here. I believe most christian scholars admit that its use in Genesis has nothing to do with the doctrine of the trinity. Us and Our are both royal plurals.
The connection is that although scripture literally says we are created in God’s image, it doesn’t mean we are equal to God or look like the incorporeal God. Just as the use of the word Elohim doesn’t cause one to believe God was talking to other Gods or other aspects of GOd.I guess I don’t get the connection, but in answer to your question, obviously nobody is equal to God.
Agree.The connection is that although scripture literally says we are created in God’s image, it doesn’t mean we are equal to God or look like the incorporeal God.
I guess your point is that figurative/symbolic language applies to both the verse in question, and the term Elohim.Just as the use of the word Elohim doesn’t cause one to believe God was talking to other Gods or other aspects of GOd.
On the other hand, whatever the bible reveals to you, or to the Church, is what it reveals. I’m just giving the interpetation as Jews see it. I don’t know what the Church says about it today. But I believe that it was, prior to the triune doctrine, understood by the early Church as God talking to angels.Agree.
I guess your point is that figurative/symbolic language applies to both the verse in question, and the term Elohim.
As I said previously, it does cause me to wonder about that possibility, but I must defer to whatever the Church says about the matter.