O
OrbisNonSufficit
Guest
None of these happened because of secular interference and was opposed by Church at first. Ordaining single men outside monastery… well Priests in Rome and Greece had to be continent after ordination. This wasn’t case in Antioch but Greeks used to have Latin practice. Others are doctrinally insignificant perhaps save use of unleavened bread.Or we could apply that standard to western annulment, or to to ordaining single men outside the monastery, or the use of unleavened bread, or kneeling on Sunday, or . . .
Point is you can read Church Fathers and realize practice of remarriage of divorced was not allowed anywhere (unlike with some other practices Church Fathers say this regardless of where they are from) and at the same time you will not see any Church Father either being opposed in this by anyone but secular side nor any Church Father saying anything contrary to it. So no, you can’t prove both sides. But from their as well as other historical writings it’s clear Byzantine Church was not okay with civil divorce into remarriage until it was… and that points to exercise of Caesaropapism in this practice.I don’t thank it’s that easy at all . . . yes, you can cherry pick specific church fathers, but you can also get to, alternatively, absolute despotism for the bishop of rome, and no role at all outside of his own diocese that way . . .