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Luke65
Guest
Hi Ultima, first of all, thanks for this link. That is a very interesting and informative dialogue. I agree with Mr. Salza on almost everything he said, although I disagree with some of his conclusions. One problem is that I didn’t see him ever say that the NO Mass is valid. I didn’t see him say it isn’t valid, but he should have made that clear. Whatever his opinion, according to everything I have seen the NO is valid, and the Sacraments are valid (unless they are invalid for other reasons). He says:Here’s a link to the rest.
First, Pope Paul VI did NOT impose the NO on the universal Church. He offered it as an alternative in the Latin Rite of the Church. Second, because the pope didn’t bind the universal Church to use the NO, his act does not invoke the charism of infallibility. Third, you are simply wrong to say that a pope cannot impose a harmful rite upon the Church. The Council of Trent disagrees with you…
Granted. But I disagree with how Salza equated “infallible” and “binding” - they are not the same thing. I would argue that the Pope did bind the whole Church when he declared that the NO may be promulgated throughout the Church. To me that means the Mass is valid, though not necessarily harmless.
What else is there?First of all, I’m not a fan of Robert Sungenis, especially on theological and ecclesial matters.
Well, I haven’t watched the debate, but considering that Sungenis promotes it and links to it, I assume that he would disagree with you.He had a debate with a Sedevacantist named John Lane and, in my opinion, embarrassed himself.
Very true. That’s why it’s important that we understand “the meaning of the saying, ‘Do not go beyond what is written.’” (1 Cor. 4:6) - don’t interpret Scripture or Church decrees in a way that makes them contradict each other.But to your point. Let me make a few admissions. First of all, I am personally still trying to interpret Dignitatis Humanae “in light of tradition”. In many places it appears to say (and is interpreted as saying) what it does not actually say.
It can be difficult, but it can be done in context and in truth. In fact, that is the only way to come to a knowledge of the truth.There are also distinctions that can be brought to the interpretation that enables a person to interpret the document in accord with what the Church has always taught. To do this requires a lot of twisting and, I would even say, taking out of context, but it is possible with most of it.
Everyone who believes the Holy Spirit protected VII from teaching error believes that it does not contradict previous decrees. I just showed you what Sungenis said, and I for one agree with him.However, NO ONE, and I mean NO ONE that I have ever heard of (including Father Harrison) interprets Dignitatis Humanae in the manner. They all interpret it as being contrary to what the Church has always taught.
Here’s what the Syllabus condemned as a heretical statement:
[It is an error to believe that] “Every man is free to embrace and profess that religion which, guided by the light of reason, he shall consider true” (Syllabus of Pius IX, #15).
But you’re not making the distinction that Sungenis points out: moral vs. civil rights. To harmonize the decrees, then, the Syllabus says that no one has a moral right to practice false religion, in accordance with the first commandment. Moreover, that no government should say that anyone has that moral right. On the other hand, VII says that governments should give man the civil right to freedom of religion, without coercion. And this distinction is made right there in the title:So, to claim that every man has a right, based on his “dignity”, to embrace and profess whatever religion he chooses, is an error. The reason it is an error is because man’s rights flow from his duties, while his duties correspond to the Rights of God.
DIGNITATIS HUMANAE:
ON THE RIGHT OF THE PERSON AND OF COMMUNITIES TO SOCIAL AND CIVIL FREEDOM IN MATTERS RELIGIOUS
“Social and civil freedom” - not moral freedom. And in the text:
Religious freedom, in turn, which men demand as necessary to fulfill their duty to worship God, has to do with immunity from coercion in civil society. Therefore it leaves untouched traditional Catholic doctrine on the moral duty of men and societies toward the true religion and toward the one Church of Christ.
And nowhere will you find the Council say that man has a moral right to practice false religion. And it is helpful to keep in mind how the world changed in those intervening years: at the time of VII more than half the world was communist! I think that was a good time for the Church of God to declare that man should have a civil right to freedom of religion, don’t you?