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Gabrielle_S
Guest
Is Jesus from the line of David through Mary? If not through Mary then how can he be considered to be from David since Joseph was his foster father?
So, both the the legal end and the actual bloodline end are covered.And there was a council of the priests, saying: Let us make a veil for the temple of the Lord. And the priest said: Call to me the undefiled virgins of the family of David. And the officers went away, and sought, and found seven virgins. And the priest remembered the child Mary, that she was of the family of David, and undefiled before God. And the officers went away and brought her. And they brought them into the temple of the Lord.
This is true, though the dual descent would certainly account for the differences in genealogy. Also, his kingship of Israel would be reinforced with descent through Mary, which would provide a blood relationship to the line of Kings.Jesus’ line of David is through Joseph as foster father and legal guardian of Jesus. This is scripture.
Line of David through Mary is only speculation.
Both are of the house of David.Is Jesus from the line of David through Mary? If not through Mary then how can he be considered to be from David since Joseph was his foster father?
This deals solely with the house of David, no other, the virgin was to be of the house of David.Isaias 7, 11 Ask thee a sign of the Lord thy God either unto the depth of hell, or unto the height above. 12 And Achaz said: I will not ask, and I will not tempt the Lord. 13 And he said: Hear ye therefore, O house of David: Is it a small thing for you to be grievous to men, that you are grievous to my God also? 14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign. Behold a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and his name shall be called Emmanuel. 15 He shall eat butter and honey, that he may know to refuse the evil, and to choose the good.
No it is not speculation, unless you think there was another virgin???Jesus’ line of David is through Joseph as foster father and legal guardian of Jesus. This is scripture.
Line of David through Mary is only speculation.
Again we’re speaking of the flesh not legal inheritance. Where was His “seed of David, according to the flesh,” if not by Mary?Romans 1, 1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, 2 Which he had promised before, by his prophets, in the holy scriptures, 3 Concerning his Son, who was made to him of the seed of David, according to the flesh,”
Between the woman’s seed and Satan.Gn 1,15 I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.
Why then does the Church agree with the line of David through Joseph but has no official position on the line of David through Mary.Both are of the house of David.
This deals solely with the house of David, no other, the virgin was to be of the house of David.
No it is not speculation, unless you think there was another virgin???
Mary and Joseph, both being faithful Jews, would have married within their line. Back during the time of Jesus, Jews only married to their “tribe”. So a Levite would only marry a Levite, a Ashkenazi would only marry an Ashkenazi etc. So Jesus is descended from David thru Mary and Joseph. Another interesting thing about Judaism, is that the “Jewishness” is passed from the mother’s line. So in order to be a Jew your mom had to be a Jew, but your dad does not have to be a Jew.
You are fighting an uphill battle. Jews of the day only married to other members of their tribe (and Orthodox Jews for the most part still do today). Technically, Jesus would have been a Jew even if his adopted father Joseph was Gentile.Why then does the Church agree with the line of David through Joseph but has no official position on the line of David through Mary.
Don’t get me wrong. I am definitely not saying or trying to say that Mary was not from the line of David. I’m more than happy to accept that.You are fighting an uphill battle. Jews of the day only married to other members of their tribe (and Orthodox Jews for the most part still do today). Technically, Jesus would have been a Jew even if his adopted father Joseph was Gentile.
It’s only disputable if people question the faithfulness of Joseph and Mary. Faithful Jews only married within their tribe. Also, will you point me to the specific church teaching which has it that Jesus’ line from David only comes from Joseph?Don’t get me wrong. I am definitely not saying or trying to say that Mary was not from the line of David. I’m more than happy to accept that.
I was just wondering why the Church only uses the line through Joseph to show the line of David to Jesus.
If is is so clear that Mary is from the line of David (and a blood line at that) why does the Church never put forward this position if it is indisputable?
I didn’t say the Church “teaches” this. I said it uses the line through Joseph. Ask any priest and he will use Joseph. I have also seen this more than once on EWTN. Apart from these forums I have never heard the Mary line being used. It has always been Joseph.It’s only disputable if people question the faithfulness of Joseph and Mary. Faithful Jews only married within their tribe. Also, will you point me to the specific church teaching which has it that Jesus’ line from David only comes from Joseph?
I have never heard the “Church” only use (or teach) the line through Joseph. I have always been taught both. Most of the priest I have asked say both!?! (My point… a priest is not an infallible answer machine.)I didn’t say the Church “teaches” this. I said it uses the line through Joseph. Ask any priest and he will use Joseph. I have also seen this more than once on EWTN. Apart from these forums I have never heard the Mary line being used. It has always been Joseph.
Even the Catholic Encyclopedia I have calls Joseph the adoptive father of Jesus, and calls Joseph a just man from the House of David.
It makes no mention of Mary being from the line of David. If it was so definitive wouldn’t the Church rather use a blood line than an adoptive line??
Simple answer is… you must not have read everything the Church possibly has to say on the subject!Why then does the Church agree with the line of David through Joseph but has no official position on the line of David through Mary.
Most of the lines I have seen only list the men. There would be no reason to have a list of men’s names, and then stick Mary at the end before Jesus. One cannot assume that just because a line of men is used… that “Mary isn’t form the house of David”. Again… Both Joseph and MAry are of the house of David.If it was so definitive wouldn’t the Church rather use a blood line than an adoptive line??
allis,Hi;
Has anyone noticed that the genealogy of Jesus in Matthew is through David’s son Solomon and that genealogy given in Luke is through David’s son Nathan.
Some say that one genealogy is of Mary and the of Joseph.
Any ideas?
allischalmers
The Church does not make an “official” pisition on many matters. Not having an official position doesn’t mean it isn’t true. Scripture spells it out why would the Church need to have an “official position”? Again, how is Jesus “the seed of the flesh” of David if thru Joseph?Why then does the Church agree with the line of David through Joseph but has no official position on the line of David through Mary.