V
Vaclav
Guest
There is a lot of discussion on here of sola scriptura or the idea that the Bible is self-authenticating and sufficient in and of itself.
That is not what I wish to discuss here (there are plenty of threads for that). My question is mostly to fundamentalist Protestants, but really to anyone who interprets the Bible using the “literal interpretation” technique.
I wonder how one gets around the problems of such a viewpoint? And please don’t take this as an attack, a childhood friend of mine was an independent Baptist and even became a minister in that denomination and he believed strongly in it, so I have no nasty personal grudge here. I just find it intellectually vacuous.
Let me explain:
So much depends upon translation and here I’m not even talking about poorly translating a text, I’m talking about the difference in languages that simply do not allow a perfect translation.
For example, the Gospel of John was written in Greek (as were Luke and Acts and some other NT books). There are many places in those books where the King James Bible, or any English Bible uses the word “love.” Yet, we know that in Greek there are four different words, with four completely different meanings for the word “love” (eros, phillia, agape, and storge).
So right there is a translation issue where English simply cannot capture the full meaning of a Greek passage. Moreover, there is little doubt that there were uses of slang, cliche, metaphor, simile, and other literary devices in Masoretic Hebrew, Aramaic, Koine Greek, and other Biblical languages. We know this for many reasons, one is that Aramaic and Syriac exist today and Koine Greek is referenced in other texts. Is it not strange then to read such passages as literal?
Then you have the problem of words and phrases that simply have no good definitions in another language. Anyone here that speaks another language knows what I mean. You can get close, yes, but unless you know the culture and original language it never really makes very good sense - and literally it makes no sense at all.
My last question is when does literalism and devotion to each individual word become bibliolatry? Is there a point where it could be taken that far?
That is not what I wish to discuss here (there are plenty of threads for that). My question is mostly to fundamentalist Protestants, but really to anyone who interprets the Bible using the “literal interpretation” technique.
I wonder how one gets around the problems of such a viewpoint? And please don’t take this as an attack, a childhood friend of mine was an independent Baptist and even became a minister in that denomination and he believed strongly in it, so I have no nasty personal grudge here. I just find it intellectually vacuous.
Let me explain:
So much depends upon translation and here I’m not even talking about poorly translating a text, I’m talking about the difference in languages that simply do not allow a perfect translation.
For example, the Gospel of John was written in Greek (as were Luke and Acts and some other NT books). There are many places in those books where the King James Bible, or any English Bible uses the word “love.” Yet, we know that in Greek there are four different words, with four completely different meanings for the word “love” (eros, phillia, agape, and storge).
So right there is a translation issue where English simply cannot capture the full meaning of a Greek passage. Moreover, there is little doubt that there were uses of slang, cliche, metaphor, simile, and other literary devices in Masoretic Hebrew, Aramaic, Koine Greek, and other Biblical languages. We know this for many reasons, one is that Aramaic and Syriac exist today and Koine Greek is referenced in other texts. Is it not strange then to read such passages as literal?
Then you have the problem of words and phrases that simply have no good definitions in another language. Anyone here that speaks another language knows what I mean. You can get close, yes, but unless you know the culture and original language it never really makes very good sense - and literally it makes no sense at all.
My last question is when does literalism and devotion to each individual word become bibliolatry? Is there a point where it could be taken that far?