That would almost be true except that the text does not support it. Jesus said of the bread “This is My Body which will be given up for you”. He said of the wine : This is my blood, the blood of the new covenant. In the OT, the covenant was always fulfilled with blood (refer back to Moses sprinkling the blood of the covenant on the people). The wine at the Seder is not referred to as a symbol of the the Old Covenant. Yet here you have Jesus saying this is my blood, the blood of the New Covenant,
You probably know that the Cup Jesus used is generally held to be the Third Cup…this has something to do with textual support that maybe gives 3 out of either 3 or 4 or 5 cups, but it has a lot more to do with what the Third Cup is all about.
The third cup of wine is taken after the meal. It is the cup of redemption, which reminds us of the shed blood of the innocent Lamb which brought our redemption from Egypt. So if you’re still tracking with me, Jesus takes a cup filled with wine, but it’s not just wine you drink because you’re thirsty. It’s loaded with symbolism. It’s a giant arrow that points toward the innocent, spotless lamb. It was killed without breaking any bones. And then its blood was smeared on the doorposts of the children of Israel while they were slaves in Egypt. Why, you might ask? This was the deal: If they did this thing with the blood, the angel of the Lord would “Pass Over” that house and not kill the firstborn son. Hence, Passover. (I really don’t understand why you think this comes out of left field. Really? On this night, with these symbolic elements? The continuity here is outstanding).
At any rate…God promised to spare the firstborn children on the condition that the blood of a sacrificed lamb was smeared on the doorframe. That’s what the giant arrow is pointing toward when Jesus uses that particular symbol and starts talking about the new covenant. Speaking of which, you know what a covenant is, right? It’s an agreement, usually formal, between two or more persons to do or not do something specified. The Third Cup refers to an agreement between God and the Jews to kill or not kill based on whether or not a blood sacrifice was carried out in the way that God indicated. It also refers to the redemption of God’s chosen people and describes the way in which He led them out of slavery in Egypt. It looks like Jesus is indicating that the arrow points at Him too, though, and this must have something to do with the Passover sacrifice and with leading people out of bondage and into freedom.
]I hate to say this but that is a rather stupid analysis. You are essentially saying that because the word transubstantiation was not in use then, therefore there cannot have been a transubstantiation happenning then.
No, I’m not essentially saying that. I appreciate that you’re trying to accurately summarize what I mean to communicate, but you didn’t quite make it on your first attempt. It’s not about the terms themselves, like “substance” and “accident” and “transubstantiation.” It’s about the semantic meaning, and it’s about the question of whether or not Jesus’ disciples were capable of reaching an understanding that was at all consistent with what you now have. I’m not saying it fails because the specific terms aren’t there- after all, where would that leave me with all the Solas? It’s about having (or not having) the ability to conceptualize the “externals” and the “internals” of objects in such a way that the external appearances may very well be completely different from what the things actually is, in and of itself.
This was not an ability that Jesus’ disciples had. They did not view the material world in this manner. They did not have an understanding of this division between “substance” and “accidents”- and I’m not just talking about a lack of the proper terminology. What I’m telling you is this: You describe a logical sequence that they “must” have gone through, and I’m telling you that logical sequence was impossible for them. They didn’t have the tools to do it.
That would be tantamount to saying that since the doctrine of the Trinity was not declared then and because the Jews did not believe in the Trinity therefore God is not a Trinity.
Serious question here, when I go through and clarify things in order to make it clear that I’m not “basically saying” such-and-such and that it’s not really “tantamount to” whatever awful thing you come up with…do you ever read that stuff and say “Ah, I get it now, it was wrong of me to say it was tantamount to that one thing and so forth”? Because that would approximate an appropriate response.
The Church is not some static thing that never grows, never gets to understand deeper the mysteries of her salvation.
Some things are mysterious. Others are pretty straightforward. Deepening isn’t always necessary or profitable, particularly when something is either fully grasped or partially unknowable.
Around the end of the first millenium, Berengarius already made the same argument you are making now.
No, he did not make the same argument. Berengarius denied that any material change to the elements was required to explain the RP, and according to CE, “For Berengarius the body and blood of Christ are really present in the Holy Eucharist; but this presence is an intellectual or spiritual presence. The substance of the bread and the substance of the wine remain unchanged in their nature, but by consecration they become spiritually the very body and blood of Christ.” Berengarius says this and I don’t. And I’m all over the Passover Seder and its symbolism whereas I don’t see Berengarius talking about it at all.
The only way to make sense of it is if you put this side by side with John 6.
I’ve been describing another way to make sense of it, but one minute you butcher it and the next you act like it doesn’t exist.