Logic and religion

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Second person. Language has a familiar logic.
  1. First person. I AM
  2. Second person, YOU ARE
  3. Third person, It is, the Indweller
Within I, He is It.

Or It is He within You.
 
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One particular book, example of that. Matthew. Beginning and middle and end.
 
When Jesus said, Let he amongst you who is without sin cast the first stone? Was that a logical conclusion to his you must forgive “Argument” which was also a command?
It can be argued that his statement is the logical conclusion of “Thou shalt not kill”. Jesus was fulfilling the law of Moses who essentially ‘invented’ forgiveness.
 
Why point out about who is without sin. And "neither do i condemn her’
 
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Second person. Language has a familiar logic.

First person. I AM
Second person, YOU ARE
Third person, It is, the Indweller

Within I, He is It.

Or It is He within You.
Are you talking about ‘one’? It’s best to think of it as ‘we’ or ‘us’, first person plural. Only the Queen can use ‘one’ and ‘we’ as the first person singular to mean ‘I’ traditionally but it is a bit archaic.

Queen Victoria is quoted as saying “We are not amused” when she meant “I’m not happy about what you just said”.
 
No. The logic of the familiar tense, you know what i mean. Are you familiar with jesus so you can speak to the uninstructed as if he? Holy spirit enables you to.
 
It depends on ones definition of sin. Jesus didn’t condemn the adulteress (in his own words) yet the Church does. Who decides?
So jesus concludes meaning ends the debate.
The human conscience has logic in it.
 
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No. The logic of the familiar tense, you know what i mean. Are you familiar with jesus so you can speak to the uninstructed as if he? Holy spirit enables you to.
I’m a linguist. There is no familiar tense in English. Tense is past, present, future, conditional etc. Familiar language exists in all languages. Language is not logical. Language is required to express logic but language itself is full of exceptions which defy logic.

Am I familiar with Jesus? Yes, I know the NT. Do I know him personally as many claim to? No, not by name. I prefer to go to the top, to the Creator. If Jesus is the Creator then yes I do. I’m not convinced the Church should have the monopoly on interpreting Jesus’ words so I prefer not to teach doctrine to the uninstructed.

Anyway, let’s get back to logic.

Question: Is God logical?
 
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So jesus concludes meaning ends the debate.

The human conscience has logic in it.
Logic would say that because Jesus forgave an adulteress adultery isn’t a sin. The Church says that it is. Who is supposed to guide our conscience? Jesus or the Church?
 
Emglish is not God’s language. I had a feeling the grammar was important.
God"s Church uses the “monopoly” of voice.
That is the logic of group cohesion.
 
No. 10/commands not abolished. Forgive is to shame the sinner to repent. Repent to keep shame alive in transformed to righteousness. Same energy. Sin. Shame. Righteousness.
 
Emglish is not God’s language. I had a feeling the grammar was important.

God"s Church uses the “monopoly” of voice.

That is the logic of group cohesion.
Language is important. Other than body language and facial expressions it is all we have to convey our thoughts.

Just because a lot of people speak with the same voice and sing the same song does not mean they are favoured. In Revelation the 144,000 sing a different song and they are saved.
 
Just because a lot of people speak with the same voice and sing the same song does not mean they are favoured. In Revelation the 144,000 sing a different song and they are saved.
Not favoured. United. Apart from participants there is no proof or inferences of IDEAS. imagine whole humanity agrees on false conclusion. It becomes true even as is false. No contradictions may exist until Jesus comes again. That will be proof.
 
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No. 10/commands not abolished. Forgive is to shame the sinner to repent. Repent to keep shame alive in transformed to righteousness. Same energy. Sin. Shame. Righteousness.
I didn’t say they were abolished. However to kill someone for committing adultery, which was the law according to the story in the NT, would appear to be a paradox which Jesus resolved by removing the adultery commandment and stating that killing can only be done by the sinless. Logically any commandment which incurs the death penalty must also be removed unless the person actually carrying out the execution (by stoning or otherwise) is sinless. By definition all humans carry the sin of Adam and Eve and are therefore of sin.
 
Apart from participants there is no proof or inferences of IDEAS. imagine whole humanity agrees on false conclusion.
According to tradition (based on Revelation) everyone will be worshiping the Beast when he comes which means all humanity will have reached the wrong conclusion.
 
Not entirely so. Still a sin but forgiven by people. Lowers the sentence. Victimless crime.
 
That wrong conclusion will appear righteous. Hell is the truth, in its devoid aspect. Shame must transform to righteous understanding. Else it becomes “no salt”
 
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