M
Mort_Alz
Guest
1 Samuel 2:25 “‘If a man sins against another man, God may mediate for him; but if a man sins against the LORD, who will intercede for him?’ His sons, however did not listen to their father’s rebuke, for it was the LORD’s will to put them to death.”
They did not listen to the rebuke, for it was the LORD’s will to put them to death.
This makes it sound like the word “for” could be changed to “because”
“…did not listen to their father’s rebuke, because it was the LORD’s will to put them to death.”
makes it kinda sound like God caused them not to repent because He wanted them to die and knew that if they repented He must give them mercy. That interpretation can’t be right.
1 Samuel 3:14 “Therefore, I swore to the house of Eli, ‘The guilt of Eli’s house will never be atoned for by sacrifice or offering.’”
Isn’t this totally contrary to Catholic teaching that there is not a man, woman, or child, today, yesterday, or tomorrow, for whom Christ did not die? This seems more in line with limited atonement.
Any sound exegesis to be provided or any explanation will be greatly appreciated
Thanks in advance.
They did not listen to the rebuke, for it was the LORD’s will to put them to death.
This makes it sound like the word “for” could be changed to “because”
“…did not listen to their father’s rebuke, because it was the LORD’s will to put them to death.”
makes it kinda sound like God caused them not to repent because He wanted them to die and knew that if they repented He must give them mercy. That interpretation can’t be right.
1 Samuel 3:14 “Therefore, I swore to the house of Eli, ‘The guilt of Eli’s house will never be atoned for by sacrifice or offering.’”
Isn’t this totally contrary to Catholic teaching that there is not a man, woman, or child, today, yesterday, or tomorrow, for whom Christ did not die? This seems more in line with limited atonement.
Any sound exegesis to be provided or any explanation will be greatly appreciated
Thanks in advance.