That quote from Paul was speaking to the Corinthians, who apparently were listening to ‘teachers with itching ears’ that told them to do those sorts of things that were not taught to them by him, or any of the other Apostles. They were obviously engaging in many practices that they made up on their own, or that some of their newer members were suggesting to them. He felt that they were being mislead by many of those people into doing things that were incorrect because they weren’t following what they had been taught from the beginning. If he didn’t think they were significantly against the Apostle’s teachings, he would not have had to write to them so many times to correct them. (He also might have been referring to other types of practices that were done for the dead, like making personal sacrifices on their behalf [things like fasting, etc.].)
But, if it was a legitimate practice that was considered necessary, all of the other Apostles would have been teaching it, everywhere they went. Since it was only briefly mentioned in this one letter to the Corinthians in the entire Bible, and none of the early Church fathers even mentioned it more than in a few passing remarks, I would have to believe that it was just another one of their many errors that he was trying to correct before it became a more widespread problem. Baptism is only necessary for the living, not the dead. Once a person has passed over the veil, it’s too late for them to be Baptized. God will decide if they will be given a choice to accept Christ or not. He doesn’t really need us to help Him out with that. He can handle it on His own because He knows what’s really in their hearts, and that’s all that really matters at that point.
Thanks, T. I respect Catholic teachings on the dead because they leave no doubt that you take seriously your responsibilities to those who have died, and reflect your belief that God has not forgotten the dead and will deal justly with them.
The brevity of I Cor 15:29, along with its addressing a practice that is nowhere else mentioned in the Bible, can certainly be seen as somehow needing interpretation. But I still maintain that it can be more easily seen as a straightforward statement of Paul’s referencing a known, orthodox practice that he uses as an argument to buttress the main point of the chapter, which is the reality of the resurrection. For the learned Paul to cite a heterodox practice in support of the central event of all Christianity doesn’t make a lot of sense to me.
If it was a legitimate practice that was considered necessary, all of the other Apostles would have been teaching it. Who is to say that wasn’t the case? I don’t think either of us believe that the NT contains a complete repository of all the teachings and practices of first century Christianity.
Clement asked Peter “shall those be wholly deprived of the kingdom of heaven who died before Christ’s coming?” Peter assures Clement that provision has been made for their salvation, leaving it in general terms by stating that this is “as far as we are allowed to declare these things” and “you compel me, O Clement, to touch upon things which we are forbidden to discuss” (Clementine Recognitions). It’s reasonable for me to think that the concept of baptism for the dead was known by the apostles and taught by them on a limited basis, hence the scarcity of references in the NT.
None of the early Church fathers even mentioned it more than in a few passing remarks. Lack of abundance doesn’t equate to lack of significance. And what is the significance of their remarks? From the Pastor of Hermas, considered to be a trustworthy commentator on the established practices of the early church: “These Apostles, and the teachers who had proclaimed the name of the Son of God, after they had fallen asleep in the power and faith of the Son of God preached likewise to the dead; and they gave them the seal of the preaching. They accordingly went down with them into the water and came out again. But although they went down while they were alive and came up alive, those who had fallen asleep before them went down dead, but came out again living; for it was through these that they were made alive, and learned the name of the Son of God” (Codex Vaticanus 3848).
Tertullian comments on the practice, first approvingly, then later with doubts. In the 5th century, Epiphanius is aware of it, as is Ambrose. Peter the Venerable in the 12th century uses much the same logic as you to try and distance the church from Paul’s straightforward declaration.
“They were baptized at that time for the unbaptized dead, with good intention but not wisely, supposing that since they had not received baptism while alive, they could help out the dead by baptizing living persons for them” (Peter the Venerable, Against the Patrobrusian Heretics). Elsewhere he says: “‘They were being baptized for the dead’ refers to the good works which the living were doing for the dead,” except, that is, for baptism, “for it is not by baptism but by other good works of the living … it is to these and not to baptism that the Apostle refers.” Which is precisely why he says baptism, for by strange logic, when the Apostle says black he really means white, and that is why he says black. (I totally stole that last paragraph from Hugh Nibley).
As time passed and the early understanding of the practice was lost, the problem sectarian Christianity faced (and that Latter-day Saints don’t) came in trying to explain how Paul said one thing while meaning something totally different. Is baptism a necessary ordinance or not? Is there one Lord, one faith, one baptism or not? Why does he cite a scorned practice to support a central tennant of faith?
If you’re going to study your way out of Mormonism (the long ago forgotten theme of this thread), our practice of baptism for the dead probably isn’t going to yield the satisfaction you seek.