M
MysticMissMisty
Guest
Salvete, omnes!
(First, if this is placed in the wrong forum, I apologize, but I was unsure as to where this would best be placed.)
Oftentimes, when I (and, I presume, when many of the rest of us) read fictional as well as historical literature about various individuals, we rejoice with them in our minds when they rejoice (if their rejoicing is to good purpose) and we mourn with them in our minds when they mourn (if their mourning is proper).
Such rejoicing and mourning surely inspires us to a greater love in the present day. It also very likely causes many of us to meditate on the nature of God’s great Love for all of us.
However, should not every action, in Catholic theology, be directed to a purpose and, indeed, a purpose that may reasonably be achieved? Since the above figures (fictional and historical) most often cannot directly be affected/influenced by our love, if, say they are in hell (for many non-Christians), is it proper to feel, and, indeed, to enjoy the feeling of, compassion we have for them when we read of their lives? After all, such love/compassion can no longer be directed to any purpose in most of these situations.
(I hope I am making myself clear in how I’m stating this. As I often say, please ask me questions if you are unclear as to what I’m getting at.)
I myself am a very empath(et)ic person (INFJ), so, even when reading novels/histories, I tend to feel very deeply the emotions of the characters, so much so that I often find myself wishing, in the case of historical figures, that I could go back somehow and reach out. This does, indeed, inspire me to greater love in the present and in circumstances that I can influence. This also causes me to meditate on God’s Love and inspires me to a more empath(et)ic/compassionate understanding of those in present times/reality.
Do I, indeed, misunderstand Catholic theology to state that everything, and absolutely everything, with no exceptions, must be done to some effective purpose? Is this a correct understanding? If so, are such statements infallibly determined?
Thoughts? Ideas?
(First, if this is placed in the wrong forum, I apologize, but I was unsure as to where this would best be placed.)
Oftentimes, when I (and, I presume, when many of the rest of us) read fictional as well as historical literature about various individuals, we rejoice with them in our minds when they rejoice (if their rejoicing is to good purpose) and we mourn with them in our minds when they mourn (if their mourning is proper).
Such rejoicing and mourning surely inspires us to a greater love in the present day. It also very likely causes many of us to meditate on the nature of God’s great Love for all of us.
However, should not every action, in Catholic theology, be directed to a purpose and, indeed, a purpose that may reasonably be achieved? Since the above figures (fictional and historical) most often cannot directly be affected/influenced by our love, if, say they are in hell (for many non-Christians), is it proper to feel, and, indeed, to enjoy the feeling of, compassion we have for them when we read of their lives? After all, such love/compassion can no longer be directed to any purpose in most of these situations.
(I hope I am making myself clear in how I’m stating this. As I often say, please ask me questions if you are unclear as to what I’m getting at.)
I myself am a very empath(et)ic person (INFJ), so, even when reading novels/histories, I tend to feel very deeply the emotions of the characters, so much so that I often find myself wishing, in the case of historical figures, that I could go back somehow and reach out. This does, indeed, inspire me to greater love in the present and in circumstances that I can influence. This also causes me to meditate on God’s Love and inspires me to a more empath(et)ic/compassionate understanding of those in present times/reality.
Do I, indeed, misunderstand Catholic theology to state that everything, and absolutely everything, with no exceptions, must be done to some effective purpose? Is this a correct understanding? If so, are such statements infallibly determined?
Thoughts? Ideas?