C
Catholic2003
Guest
This is what I am thinking as well.Again, the device is not the issue, but the intent is. If the intent is not to contracept, then I would think it would be licit.
I’m making a case that there is no need to perforate the condom. The intent is what determines whether the action is moral or immoral. If the intent is immoral, then the act is immoral, even if a perforated condom is used. If the intent is moral, then using a non-perforated condom would be moral, because it is still not 100% effective, and thus “open to life”.As an aside, if the holes are large enough to allow a sperm through, I would think any virus could get through. Are you making a case to “allow” condoms when one spouse has something like HIV?