Luk 11:27 and 28 and the blessedness of mary

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Hi all,
i had a conversation with a friend online and he was quick to point that he belives catholics have a wrong idea regarding the blessedness of mary, he said the greek word used to address a believer in verse 28 means ‘supremly blessed’ while d word used for mary thru out scriptures simply means blessed, he argues that d blessednes of mary has nothing special to it as it could be superceeded by a believer. The absence of a good concordance and and commentary made me stall the discussion.
I need all d good greek translations and explanations i can get.
Thanks
 
I find the Greek word used in 11:27 to be μακαρία, and the word used in verse 28 is μακάριοι. The difference between the 2 words is the first one applies to females and the second applies to males (or possibly a mixed gender group). The root word is the same, as is the meaning (blessed or happy). Ask your friend if he could be a bit more specific about the Greek (perhaps he has a phrase in mind which is not immediately obvious to me).

Hope this helps!

Pax!
 
Being described as “Blessed” in biblical times did not have the same meaning it does for us today. We use the word very casually and say things like, “He was blessed with good health.”

Blessedness in the Bible however, was a singlular gift, something special, which no one else had.

As an example, the first born son recieved a blessing from his father, and this blessing gave him the singular gift of leadership of the family. None of the other sons could have such a blessing.

To be called “Blessed” was to be set apart.

-Tim-
 
Hi all,
i had a conversation with a friend online and he was quick to point that he belives catholics have a wrong idea regarding the blessedness of mary, he said the greek word used to address a believer in verse 28 means ‘supremly blessed’ while d word used for mary thru out scriptures simply means blessed, he argues that d blessednes of mary has nothing special to it as it could be superceeded by a believer. The absence of a good concordance and and commentary made me stall the discussion.
I need all d good greek translations and explanations i can get.
Thanks
Cachonga has already answered the Greek question in terms of grammar as far as it goes.

There is, however, something more to notice. The woman, more or less, is a devil.

Notice where the passage is sandwhiched…
The discussion had been in the generic – about “man”. Jesus had cast out a devil, and then gives a saying regarding demons: "He who is not with me, is against me; … The unclean spirit which has posessed a man…comes back, to find that dewlling swept out, and neatly set in order. There upon it goes out and brings back seven demons worse than itself … the state of that man is worse than the first

Notice, then, there is a connection made by Luke:
When he spoke thus, a woman in the multitude said to him loudly…”

And notice specifically what she actually calls attention to:
“womb” and “the breast which you have sucked”.

Nowhere does she actually mention Jesus’ mother. Only those of us not in Jesus’ position nor that of his enemies (wishing to discredit him) would assume innocently that his mother is meant.

This woman is flattering Jesus – not truly aiming at blessing his mother; She specifically calls attention to the kind of woman she herself is – a temptress – by focusing Jesus on things of all women.

She is as much as suggesting – I’d like to be blessed by your use of my parts. Slick…

Jesus immediately defends his reputation and that of his mother, by calling attention to men who obey God. The negative response prevents people from starting to gossip.

As Cachonga notes, the blessing ending in “oi” can also refer to a group of mixed gender by inclusion.

As far as concordance goes, I think you’ll find that the Greek “Makarioi” is often understood as the more general idea “happy”; the translation “blessed” is more of a Latin sensibility but just as valid.
 
It may be all Greek to me, but how can anyone view the very mother of God as anything but blessed?
 
The Virgin Mary was doubly blessed. She was blessed because she was the mother of the Messiah and, more importantly, because she was a believer. No wonder the angel Gabriel addressed her as “Favored (women)!” in Luke 1:28 and St. Elizabeth described her as “Blessed … among women” in Luke 1:42.
 
Thanks everyone, sorry i didnt reply early, luk1 uses elugeo to describe mary blessedness as compared to makariou used for a believer, it seems my friend didnt notice that the woman in luk11 also use makarious to refer to the mother of christ. As far as my protestant friend is concerned that only shows that the blessedness of mary is same with that of a believer.
He doesnt see anything special about the mother of christ for him, she is just another instrument God used and that doesnt equal “an extra layer of blessing”.
thanks everyone.
 
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