Luke 1:23 (NRSV) vs Luke 8:? (Byzantine Catholic)

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What Bible do the Byzantine Catholics use? What is numbered Luke 1:23 in the Latin Vulgate was numbered Luke 8:? at a Byzantine Catholic Liturgy. Sadly, it read “Hail, Oh favoured daughter…” as in the King James Version and other “modern” translations. The distinction here is the Virgin Mary was MORE than favoured! Noah was favoured, Moses was favoured, David was favoured…Virgin Mary was FULL OF GRACE!, and my understanding of this is the Church Fathers note this to be a distinguishing factor of Our Lady’s Immaculate Conception The blasphemies against this fact is one of the reasons Our Lady of Fatima asked for devotion to the Five First Saturdays. Perhaps modern translation from the Greek is “favoured” but it seems like it is an incompletetranslation. Any help in clarifying this is most appreciated.
 
What Bible do the Byzantine Catholics use? What is numbered Luke 1:23 in the Latin Vulgate was numbered Luke 8:? at a Byzantine Catholic Liturgy. Sadly, it read “Hail, Oh favoured daughter…” as in the King James Version and other “modern” translations. The distinction here is the Virgin Mary was MORE than favoured! Noah was favoured, Moses was favoured, David was favoured…Virgin Mary was FULL OF GRACE!, and my understanding of this is the Church Fathers note this to be a distinguishing factor of Our Lady’s Immaculate Conception The blasphemies against this fact is one of the reasons Our Lady of Fatima asked for devotion to the Five First Saturdays. Perhaps modern translation from the Greek is “favoured” but it seems like it is an incompletetranslation. Any help in clarifying this is most appreciated.
You cannot translate “kecharitomene.”

You’re better off understanding the word as given in the Greek rather than complain about how it’s rendered in the English. “Full of grace” is not as great as many think it is. It is good, but it still falls short. “Highly favoured” also falls short, but is not an unreasonably bad translation either, again, contrary to the opinions of armchair apologists.
 
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You cannot translate “kecharitomene.”
Not very neatly, anyway. It would come out like “the one who has been filled with grace from some time in the past, continuing into the present”.
 
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porthos11:
You cannot translate “kecharitomene.”
Not very neatly, anyway. It would come out like “the one who has been filled with grace from some time in the past, continuing into the present”.
Not “the one”. It is “[O] you who have…”
 
What Bible do the Byzantine Catholics use? What is numbered Luke 1:23 in the Latin Vulgate was numbered Luke 8:? at a Byzantine Catholic Liturgy. …
It is Luke 1:28 in all the versions. Maybe it was a misprint. Different translations may be used by the various Byzantine sui iuris churches (Ukrainian, Ruthenian, Greek-Melkite, Romanian, etc.)
 
It is a perfect participle: Perfect participle , also called past participle , is a verbal adjective to show action that is past or completed.
Jerome, being a Catholic Theologian, translated “Full of Grace” as a “perfected operation” (and continuing into the present and all time) to show how the Church’s Tradition understood this view of Mary, since the annunciation itself.

Full of Grace, when κεχαριτωμένη is seen as a Perfect Participle, and when Catholic Tradition chooses this meaning, it is fully valid and correct.
Whoever the “LORD is With” is full of Grace, full of the infused Light of the Holy Spirit and infused Virtue, in other words, full of Grace. And in the Perfect tense, it is Complete, which gives the word “Full”.

Only Catholics understand the infusion of Grace as a real event;
All others think that Grace is still in God, as with his Eyes he looks kindly at you from within himself. Nothing is in you. So they translate “O highly favored one” (favored by God from where he dwells in heaven and looks at you on earth).

John Martin
 
That translation (Oh favored daughter) is actually adequate, as the term is feminine. It also calls to mind the prophecies referring to the “daughters of Zion”.
 
What Bible do the Byzantine Catholics use? What is numbered Luke 1:23 in the Latin Vulgate was numbered Luke 8:? at a Byzantine Catholic Liturgy. Sadly, it read “Hail, Oh favoured daughter…” as in the King James Version and other “modern” translations. The distinction here is the Virgin Mary was MORE than favoured! Noah was favoured, Moses was favoured, David was favoured…Virgin Mary was FULL OF GRACE!, and my understanding of this is the Church Fathers note this to be a distinguishing factor of Our Lady’s Immaculate Conception The blasphemies against this fact is one of the reasons Our Lady of Fatima asked for devotion to the Five First Saturdays. Perhaps modern translation from the Greek is “favoured” but it seems like it is an incompletetranslation. Any help in clarifying this is most appreciated.
The problem you are having is that your translation selection is basing it’s wording on Jerome’s Latin translation rather than the Greek it came from. The Byzantine rendering is far closer to what the Greek means, although I would subtract the daughter and just say something like, Hail (or Greetings) one having been favored by God, since this is what it literally means. However, the Byzantine translation you mentioned is accurate and readable.
 
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Jerome went further.
One favored by God means God is giving something to the person.
Favor means to bestow favor, not just to “like” someone.
Favor is a verb of doing to someone, used here as an adjective meaning that the noun (Mary) described has been “done something to her”.
What does God have to Give except himself?
Gabriel confirms that God has given himself, he CLARIFIES by explaining what “full of grace” means with the next clause - “the LORD, ‘I AM’, is with you”, meaning the Holy Spirit with infusion of Grace is perpetuated within you.

It is only in the Protestant era when grace began to be seen as a “frame of mind within God” rather than the Universally known understanding of Grace as a real given gift that is now contained within the recipient; it is contained for use in living the virtues joyfully, and singing, “My soul magnifies the LORD!” That cannot be sung as a statement of reality within a person except that a person is full, infused, of Grace.

Thus Jerome had to render it as the Church knew it to be with Mary. Many possible alternatives to linguists, yet only one of them posited by Sacred Tradition.
We are “quoting” Gabriel in our Prayer of the Rosary; we are quoting literally from Luke’s writing; we are not in error in that quotation as if we did not understand Greek.

As to how a person would say “Full of Grace” in Greek, translating the other way around, I thought I might try Google Translate (to modern greek of course).
I entered “Gracefilled woman” in English, and what came out in Greek?.. χαριτωμένη γυναίκα. (Charitomene Gynaika)
Same participle as some translators would nowadays say means, “favored woman”, when the “tradition” of the person who created the original phrase (myself) intended “Gracefillled Woman”.
So, when Luke translated Mary’s Aramaic or Hebrew to Greek, he chose the perfect participle, but same word.

John Martin
 
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To John Martin ~
Thank you for explaining my sentiments exactly in a manner of where my words failed! This is my WHOLE point…and what seems to be sadly lacking in understanding, or just out of poor catechesis. The place given to Our Lady is above all the Angels & Saints combined! She is God’s most perfect (most for emphasis – perfect issupreme by its definition) creature!! FULL of Grace (CAPITAL “G”) – thus, Full of the Holy Trinity within and with her Fiat! bringing into time on Earth the Word Made Flesh!!
Thank you for giving Our Lady her elevated place in all Creation through your explanation! Merry Christmas!
 
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