Luke 1:28

[RCWarrior821]

What is the true translation of Luke 1:28?

Full of Grace or Favored one?

Because if it is “Hail favored one” how can i argue Mary being full of grace to a protestant?

Thanks

 

[fhansen]

Because all gifts-or favors- from God come through, or can be considered to be, grace. That’s what grace is.

 

[guanophore]

What is the true translation of Luke 1:28?

Full of Grace or Favored one?

Because if it is “Hail favored one” how can i argue Mary being full of grace to a protestant?

Thanks

Protestant Bibles translate the word that way purposefully, to deny Catholic teaching.

The Angel does not greet Mary by name, but by the Title “Full of Grace”.

Luke 1:28
kecharitome

The Greek tense of the word is a past perfect, meaning “having been filled completely with grace”. She was full of grace before the Angel came to her. Catholics believe that where there is a fullness of grace, sin is not present.

Here is a good link for material on Mary:

catholic.com/library/mary_saints.asp

 

[Stylteralmaldo]

Protestant Bibles translate the word that way purposefully, to deny Catholic teaching.

The New American Bible, authorized version for Catholics also uses “favored” instead of “full of grace”.

It’s partly for this reason I don’t think it is a deliberate denial of Catholic teaching. It is a watered-down version IMHO.

Here’s Jimmy Akin’s take on the matter:

jimmyakin.typepad.com/defensor_fidei/2005/10/kecharitomene_q.html

A reader writes:I was watching EWTN earlier and it was mentioned that only two people in the New Testament are referred to as “full of grace” – Jesus (John 1:14) and Mary (Luke 1:28). Of course I thought this would be a really neat thing to mention to my Protestant friends (especially if we’re talking about Jesus and Mary being the New Adam and New Eve). BUT I wanted to go beyond the English and examine the original Greek – but I don’t know a lot about Greek! So I have two twofold questions: (1) does John 1:14 use kecharitomene as fully (pardon the pun) as Luke’s usage in 1:28 or does John 1:14 follow more closely to Acts 6:8 when Stephen is referred to as “full of grace and power”? John 1:14 says that Jesus was plErEs charitos, which literally means “full of grace.” (Those capital Es arepresent etas, so pronounce them like the e in “they”; the word is thus pronounced PLAY-RACE).
Luke 1:28 uses kecharitomene, which literally means “one who has been graced” or “woman who has been graced” (since the gender is female). It doesn’t literally mean “full of grace,” though that is defensible as a free translation.

Acts 6:8 refers to Stephen as plErEs charitos, so again it’s literally “full of grace” and just the same as the description used of Jesus in John 1:14.If it is the latter, (2) does that mean there really isn’t a literal “full of grace” parallel between Luke 1:28 and John 1:14 or can I find that literal parallel somewhere else in the New Testament?Not that I’m aware of, and I’d almost certainly be aware of it if there were.
I’m afraid that in establishing Jesus and Mary as the New Adam and Eve, you’ll need to appeal to other considerations. You might try those mentioned HERE and HERE.

 

[NDfan]

What is the true translation of Luke 1:28?

Full of Grace or Favored one?

Because if it is “Hail favored one” how can i argue Mary being full of grace to a protestant?

Thanks

RC I’ve studied this passage immensely so I will try to answer. The word used in Luke 1:28 is the word charitoo which is a form of the word charis meaning grace. Charis simply means unmerited favor.

The way the word is written in Luke 1:28 as you may know is kecharitomene. Writing it this way denotes a previous action. So in essence the phrase should be written as one who has found favor with GOD implying that it was previously done. The only problem is that we cannot know when the action took place as it could have been the day before the Angel visited Mary, a year before, or when she was born etc. etc. It makes sense to say that GOD created Mary for the sole purpose of giving birth to Jesus knowing that she would accept this great and wonderful blessing and responsibility. So most likely and this is just opinion, as soon as Mary was conceived GOD found favor with her knowing she would deliver Christ Jesus.

The word kecharitomene was interpreted as full of grace by Jerome when he wrote the vulgate using the words gratiae plena literally meaning full of grace. But this is not how kecharitomene is literally interpreted. To literally say full of grace the verse would have to be written as “plaras karitos” which means “full of grace” and is only written in 2 parts of the NT: John 1:14 describing Jesus, and Acts 6:8 describing Stephen.

Getting back to the word charitoo used in Luke 1:28, we see also this word is used in Ephesians 1:6 by Paul letting the church in Ephesus know they are under GOD’s grace. The difference is that in Ephesians charitoo is written as echaritosen which signifies the present tense of the word charitoo. So in essence Paul is telling the Ephesians that they are now under GOD’s grace which he poured out on them or enriched them with. So the problem that we have is that if you are going to say that Mary was sinless because of the grace she received, then you have to say the same about the Ephesians because they received the same grace.

PEACE

 

[fhansen]

The New American Bible, authorized version for Catholics also uses “favored” instead of “full of grace”.

It’s partly for this reason I don’t think it is a deliberate denial of Catholic teaching. It is a watered-down version IMHO.

Here’s Jimmy Akin’s take on the matter:

jimmyakin.typepad.com/defensor_fidei/2005/10/kecharitomene_q.html

In all of this, grace is not defined. What we know of grace through revelation and also through experience, I believe, is not a lot more than that it’s a gift of Gods’ love and benevolence, divine aid given for His purposes, ultimately for our salvation.

 

[NDfan]

Protestant Bibles translate the word that way purposefully, to deny Catholic teaching.

The Angel does not greet Mary by name, but by the Title “Full of Grace”.

Luke 1:28
kecharitome

Guanophore this is not what kecharitomene means. It’s not a title at all as the word charitoo is a verb. The Angel is greeting Mary as one who has found favor with GOD (Past Tense). Jerome interpreted this word as gratiae plena which in Latin literally means full of grace. The only 2 places in the NT that full of grace is written is in John to describe Jesus, and Acts to describe Stephen. The word used there is Plaras Karitos, or I’ve seen Plaras written as Pleres. But either way Mary is not described in this manner.

The Greek tense of the word is a past perfect, meaning “having been filled completely with grace”. She was full of grace before the Angel came to her. Catholics believe that where there is a fullness of grace, sin is not present.

Then using this logic we have to say the church in Ephesus became sinless because they received the same grace that Mary did. Charitoo is only used twice in the NT, to describe Mary and the Ephesians.

Here is a good link for material on Mary:

catholic.com/library/mary_saints.asp

This is just typical RC material to support the erroneous claim the Pope has made.

PEACE

 

[guanophore]

Guanophore this is not what kecharitomene means. It’s not a title at all as the word charitoo is a verb.

The Angel is greeting Mary as one who has found favor with GOD (Past Tense).

Yes, I am aware that it is a verb. However, the Angel used itias a greeting. He did not greet Mary by her name, but by the title- “Oh highly favored one” (or however you render it. Do you imagine that there is any way to find favor with God apart from His grace? How is it that she was favored with His grace prior to the coming of the Angel?

Jerome interpreted this word as gratiae plena which in Latin literally means full of grace. The only 2 places in the NT that full of grace is written is in John to describe Jesus, and Acts to describe Stephen. The word used there is Plaras Karitos, or I’ve seen Plaras written as Pleres. But either way Mary is not described in this manner.

Then using this logic we have to say the church in Ephesus became sinless because they received the same grace that Mary did. Charitoo is only used twice in the NT, to describe Mary and the Ephesians.

T’his is a very Catholic rendering. Catholic teaching is that baptism washes away all sins, personal and original, and that we are washed, cleaned, and completely pure in the sight of God, by His grace.

This is just typical RC material to support the erroneous claim the Pope has made.

PEACE

Well, that may be, but it is difficult to dismiss the whole doctrine in this matter. You see, all the apostolic churches, including those not in union with Rome, received the same teaching from the Apostles about Mary, and all venerate her in this manner. Therefore, since it is not just a “roman” or “papal” phenomenon, then how do you accout for that?