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CutlerB
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In the Gospel according to Saint Luke we read:
[BIBLEDRB]Luke 1:34[/BIBLEDRB]
Now, I am reading Pope Emeritus Benedict XVI’s Jesus of Nazareth –The Infancy Narratives, and in the book His Holiness writes:
[BIBLEDRB]Luke 1:34[/BIBLEDRB]
Now, I am reading Pope Emeritus Benedict XVI’s Jesus of Nazareth –The Infancy Narratives, and in the book His Holiness writes:
On Catholic Answers Live (and the website, I think) I have heard argued in the affirmative precisely what Benedict is rejecting here, with the same insistence that he displays. This verse was used as evidence of Mary’s Perpetual Virginity. Is there any more information on this? What’s your opinion?(Translated, I’m reading the German version)
Since Augustine’s time, the question about the meaning of the question was answered in the following way: Mary supposedly took a vow of virginity and was betrothed to Joseph so she would have a protector. But this reconstruction is totally foreign to Judaism at the time of Jesus and it doesn’t seem plausible.