Luke 1:42, Mary Blessed among Women and not Men?

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My non-catholic friend texted me and cited St. Luke 1:42, “Most blessed are you among women” and said that she is blessed only among the Hebrew women of the Bible because she was chosen to give birth to Jesus but that in the Bible she never is mentioned as being “blessed among men,” because if that was the case, Mary would go beyond “Authority of Men.”

Authority of Men? Women are considered less than men? Is that what he means or if Mary was blessed among men, would she be greater than Jesus? Anyway, it does not say men, only “blessed among women.” What is the answer to this???

On Luke 1:48, “from now on will all ages call me blessed,” he said that she calls herself blessed and neither the Angel Gabriel nor anyone else calls her Blessed (except blessed among women).

What should I answer?

I don’t know if I’m making sense.
 
My non-catholic friend texted me and cited St. Luke 1:42, “Most blessed are you among women” and said that she is blessed only among the Hebrew women of the Bible
That doesn’t hold up. If the verse said “most blessed are you among Hebrew women”, then he’d have a leg to stand on… but that’s not what the verse says. It says “among women”, implying “among all women.”
but that in the Bible she never is mentioned as being “blessed among men,”
Not sure what that’s supposed to prove.
because if that was the case, Mary would go beyond “Authority of Men.”
Has he substantiated what that’s supposed to mean? He’s making a claim that, in his context, is presumed to be true. He’d have to (at the very least) share with you what that claim is, and why it’s true. Short of that, there’s not a whole lot to go on here. He’s pulling it from the Bible, clearly, but the dynamic here is to establish a baseline from which a discussion might proceed.
On Luke 1:48, “from now on will all ages call me blessed,” he said that she calls herself blessed and neither the Angel Gabriel nor anyone else calls her Blessed (except blessed among women).
No – Mary is making a prophetic statement: all generations will call her blessed. This is, objectively speaking, true: she has been called ‘blessed’ in each generation since her prophecy. Mary didn’t prophecy that “the Angel Gabriel will call me blessed” (although, oops, he called her kecharitomene – ‘she who has been graced’!); nor did she claim that “people quoted in the Bible will call me blessed.” Your friend is disproving a claim that the Bible doesn’t make. 🤷
 
“Blessed are you among women” At the time of the birth of Christ, many Jewish women of child bearing age were hoping that their child would be the Messiah who would lift Israel out of the bonds of oppression. If so, that mother would truly be blessed among women for being the mother of the Jewish king and bringing about the freedom of the Jewish people.

“from now on will all ages call me blessed,” And we do. Over 1.2 billion Catholics today call her blessed as we pray the Hail Mary (Blessed are you among women and Blessed is the Fruit of your womb, Jesus")

Ask your non-Catholic friend if he/she believes that Jesus is God Incarnate. If so, how does a common female give birth to God made Man? If not, why is Jesus’ death and resurrection so important to him/her?
 
Mary is blessed amoung women-because she is a woman. Why would she be compared to men if she is not a man?
It is refering to likenesses. Apples to apples…

Your friend is reading way too much into this.
 
Okay, this is stupid.

Let’s look at Songs 5:17:
“Whither is thy beloved gone, O thou most beautiful among women?
Whither is thy beloved turned aside, and we will seek him with thee?”
Is this saying that only women consider the protagonist woman in Songs to be beautiful?

Oh, heck no. The opposite. Men are going to be pretty darned sure she’s gorgeous!

This is a compliment; but it implies that she’s the most beautiful woman in the world, and logically there’s also a man who’s the most hunky in the world.

Let’s move on to the DIRECT SCRIPTURAL PARALLEL that is being quoted by the angel Gabriel:

Judges 5:24:
Blessed among women be Jael the wife of Heber the Kenite,
and among women be she blessed in her tent.
The Hebrew words are:
tə-ḇō-raḵ – blessed
min-nā-šîm – among women

They’re repeated in each verse above, albeit in different orders.

It’s the song of Deborah and Barak, not just the song of Deborah. Not only women bless Jael for her brave deed; men bless her too.

(And apparently angels and God also bless Jael, since Gabriel quotes the verse as part of his message, and his message comes direct from God.)

If your friend really were interested in the question of women blessed in the Bible, he’d be getting out his Bible concordance and looking up “blessed,” and he wouldn’t be saying such ignorant things. So he’s just repeating something stupid that somebody else taught him, probably.
 
My non-catholic friend texted me and cited St. Luke 1:42, “Most blessed are you among women” and said that she is blessed only among the Hebrew women of the Bible because she was chosen to give birth to Jesus but that in the Bible she never is mentioned as being “blessed among men,” because if that was the case, Mary would go beyond “Authority of Men.”

Authority of Men? Women are considered less than men? Is that what he means or if Mary was blessed among men, would she be greater than Jesus? Anyway, it does not say men, only “blessed among women.” What is the answer to this???

On Luke 1:48, “from now on will all ages call me blessed,” he said that she calls herself blessed and neither the Angel Gabriel nor anyone else calls her Blessed (except blessed among women).

What should I answer?

I don’t know if I’m making sense.
Good example of how they make things what they want them to be!! God Bless, Memaw
 
“All generations will call me blessed” is a Scriptural reference to Genesis 30:13, where Leah says she’s fortunate because she’s had another son, and therefore “the daughters” (other women) “will call her fortunate.” And she names her son “Asher,” which means “fortunate” or “happy.”

The Greek “makarios” means “blessed,” but it also means “fortunate” or “happy.” So that’s how the Septuagint translates what Leah says.

Mary ups the ante, because this time, not just “the daughters” but “all the generations will call me blessed.” (Lk. 1:48)

The Greek words used for “all the generations” (pasai hai geneai) are the same words used in Matthew 1:17 for “all the generations from Abraham to David…” Tons of other examples in the Bible, especially if you use the Septuagint OT translation.

“Makariosin” is 3rd person plural, not 1st person singular. So it’s definitely not Mary calling herself blessed; she is prophesying that all the generations will call her blessed.

And why shouldn’t they!? She’s blessed because she’s the mother of the Lord, and because she has trusted and then seen Israel’s hope come to pass. All of Israel’s generations, and all the world’s generations to come, have been waiting for the Savior. Of course they will bless the one through whom He comes!

Now, if your friend thinks that Mary wasn’t prophesying when she sang the Magnificat, that goes against the entire Biblical tradition, as well as the parallel with the Song of Miriam in Exodus. They don’t stick women’s songs in the Bible as a light musical number; they mean stuff.

Hope this helped.
 
My non-catholic friend texted me and cited St. Luke 1:42, “Most blessed are you among women” and said that she is blessed only among the Hebrew women of the Bible because she was chosen to give birth to Jesus but that in the Bible she never is mentioned as being “blessed among men,” because if that was the case, Mary would go beyond “Authority of Men.”

Authority of Men? Women are considered less than men? Is that what he means or if Mary was blessed among men, would she be greater than Jesus? Anyway, it does not say men, only “blessed among women.” What is the answer to this???

On Luke 1:48, “from now on will all ages call me blessed,” he said that she calls herself blessed and neither the Angel Gabriel nor anyone else calls her Blessed (except blessed among women).

What should I answer?

I don’t know if I’m making sense.
Is your friend one of those who finds sexism under a rock, as one poster puts it, or is your friend one of the Christians who believe in the universal authority of men over women? There are Christian groups who would like to see women in the perpetual status of minors with a male guardian over them all their lives. Look up Christian Reconstructionism.
 
I would respond by pointing to Luke 1:42 and here’s why.

I see that your friend points to this to say that Mary is only “Blessed art thou among women”. But what about the next line where it says “Blessed is the fruit of thy womb”? Following the same Bible interpreting logic that your friend is using, this verse about Jesus would only be saying that he is blessed, but not among men or women because it Elizabeth never said so. He is just a blessed child, like every other child on earth.

If your friend responds that it isn’t the same, just say “Why not?” because the burden of proof is on her.
 
My non-catholic friend texted me and cited St. Luke 1:42, “Most blessed are you among women” and said that she is blessed only among the Hebrew women of the Bible because she was chosen to give birth to Jesus but that in the Bible she never is mentioned as being “blessed among men,” because if that was the case, Mary would go beyond “Authority of Men.”

Authority of Men? Women are considered less than men? Is that what he means or if Mary was blessed among men, would she be greater than Jesus? Anyway, it does not say men, only “blessed among women.” What is the answer to this???

On Luke 1:48, “from now on will all ages call me blessed,” he said that she calls herself blessed and neither the Angel Gabriel nor anyone else calls her Blessed (except blessed among women).

What should I answer?

I don’t know if I’m making sense.
What’s so hard to understand?

Mary is “blessed among women” because she was conceived without sin…and therefore God prepared her to give birth to His Son, Jesus.
I don’t think any men would qualify !!!

Where do people come up with these other weird ideas :confused: :eek::rolleyes: 🤷
 
The mother of the king was always the queen in the Old Testament.
No, this is not always the case.

However, this is true in the Davidic kingship: for example, in the time of the divided kingdom, the southern kingdom (Judah) – which had a son of David as king – had a queen mother. The northern kingdom did not.
 
My non-catholic friend texted me and cited St. Luke 1:42, “Most blessed are you among women” and said that she is blessed only among the Hebrew women of the Bible because she was chosen to give birth to Jesus but that in the Bible she never is mentioned as being “blessed among men,” because if that was the case, Mary would go beyond “Authority of Men.”
Did your friend ever consider the fact that Elizabeth said Mary was called “blessed among women” because Mary was a woman? How hard is that to figure out?a·mong (preposition: amongst)
Code:
1. surrounded by; in the company of.
**2. being a member or members of (a larger set).** **(Mary is a member of the 'larger set', ***women***)**

synonyms: included in, **one/some of**, in the group/number of
When we say someone is “blessed”, it infers that we think they have been “blessed” by God. It’s not people that are doing the “blessing”. So, what Elizabeth is really saying is that Mary is “blessed (BY GOD) among (ALL) women”. Elizabeth is inferring that Mary has been singled out (or set apart), from amongst all women, and blessed by God in a special way. It doesn’t mean that only women would call her blessed by God, either. Men shouldn’t have any problem calling her “blessed (by God) among women”. Why would they?

It certainly has nothing to do with any kind of “authority” issues. I think your friend is trying to twist scripture in knots, to make it look like it means what he wants it to mean.
Authority of Men? Women are considered less than men? Is that what he means or if Mary was blessed among men, would she be greater than Jesus? Anyway, it does not say men, only “blessed among women.” What is the answer to this???
That whole mishmash of ideas is completely bogus, and has nothing to do with reality. He seems to be the one that’s somehow seeing “authority issues” being inferred here, so he’s trying to make this outrageous claim and turn this whole passage into something it’s not.
On Luke 1:48, “from now on will all ages call me blessed,” he said that she calls herself blessed and neither the Angel Gabriel nor anyone else calls her Blessed (except blessed among women).
"Luke 1: [46] And Mary said: My soul doth magnify the Lord. [47] And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour. [48] Because he hath regarded the humility of his handmaid; for behold from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed. "
The Douay-Rheims uses the word “generations”, not “ages”, but this is clearly a prophecy where Mary is proclaiming that from that point forward, all people will call her “blessed”, because she was chosen from among all women that ever will have walked the earth, to give birth to the Incarnation, the Son of the Living God. If that doesn’t give us all a perfect reason to call her “blessed”, what else ever could? Who else, other than Jesus, had a more important role in our salvation? She is the most important woman that has ever lived, either in the past, the present, or the future.

It all boils down to the fact that Mary was not just “blessed (by God)” from among ALL women, but she was very blessed by God. And, through her complete surrender and acceptance of God’s immense blessing (that was given to her, alone), all men, women, and children who ever live, will also be blessed by God, forever and ever. Everything she ever did was to glorify God, not herself. That’s why she begins by saying, “My soul doth magnify the Lord”. That’s also why Jesus said, “Woman, behold thy son” and “son, behold thy Mother”. He was proclaiming her to be the Mother of us all, because she was a perfect Mother to Him.
What should I answer?
Maybe you could tell him to buy a good dictionary, and take a course in English grammar? Just a thought. 🤷
 
My non-catholic friend texted me and cited St. Luke 1:42, “Most blessed are you among women” and said that she is blessed only among the Hebrew women.
I would tell your friend “That’s not what The Bible says”
 
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