luke 1:47 ?

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but then would she rejoice that christ was her savior not **is ** her savior?
 
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myfavoritmartin:
but then would she rejoice that christ was her savior not **is **her savior?
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Both.
 
I presume actually that Mary speaks of God the Father as the savior in 1:47, which the Jews typically thought of Him from the earliest Old Testament times, as when He sent Moses to bring them out of Egypt.
However, you do have a valid question, since in 1:69 she exults that God has raised up a horn of salvation, which is her son, Jesus.
Saint Therese’s confessor was amazed to realize that she never committed a mortal sin in her life. Of course this wouldn’t mean that Christ didn’t save her. It would mean that Christ through the redemption on the cross poured his grace into her soul, just as he gives grace to everyone who serves God. In the same way Christ was and is Mary’s savior.
Saint Bede made a comment on this prayer of Mary’s that I like: “In the following words she teaches us how worthless she felt of herself and that she received by the heavenly grace that was lavished on her every sort of good merit that she had. She says ‘For he has considered the humility of his handmaiden. For behold from this time on all generations will call me blessed.’ She demonstrates that in her own judgment she was indeed Christ’s humble handmaid, but with respect to heavenly grace she pronounces herself all at once lifted up and glorified to such a degree that rightly her preeminent blessedness would be marveled at by the voices of all nations.”(Homilies on the Gospels, 1.4)
I agree too by the way that Christ saved her as well when she was born without original sin. The Catechism of the Catholic Church provides the traditional Catholic conviction about this when it explains that 'the splendor of an entirely unique holiness by which Mary is enriched from the first instant of her conception comes wholly from Christ: she is redeemed, in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her son."(section 492).
 
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myfavoritmartin:
If mary was born without sin what part of the following definition was she in danger of.
Savior: A person who rescues another from harm, danger, or loss.
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I’ve been rescued from harm, and I’m being rescued from harm and danger.

Mary has been rescued from danger and was continually rescued from danger.

Jesus was and is and will be my savior, as my salvation is a process.

Notworthy
 
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myfavoritmartin:
If mary was born without sin what part of the following definition was she in danger of.
Savior: A person who rescues another from harm, danger, or loss.
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This is from CA catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp

Consider an analogy: Suppose a man falls into a deep pit, and someone reaches down to pull him out. The man has been “saved” from the pit. Now imagine a woman walking along, and she too is about to topple into the pit, but at the very moment that she is to fall in, someone holds her back and prevents her. She too has been saved from the pit, but in an even better way: She was not simply taken out of the pit, she was prevented from getting stained by the mud in the first place. This is the illustration Christians have used for a thousand years to explain how Mary was saved by Christ. By receiving Christ’s grace at her conception, she had his grace applied to her before she was able to become mired in original sin and its stain.
 
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myfavoritmartin:
Kecharitomene?
help me on this one notworthy :confused:
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When Gabriel addresses Mary, he says Caire, kecharitome. Kecharitomene is a part of speech that is a past passive perfect. Since it’s root is caritas, or charity, it means Mary received perfect charity as a past event that is continuing into the present.
 
Thank you notworthy, I will contemplate on that. By the way I am sorry if you felt I was being judgemental some of my comments appear that way because I am in fact a true to the heart evangelical, My reason for being on here is that my son is being raised by his mother RC and it is important to me to have an understanding of where her and my beliefs coincide and where they contradict. Once again I am sorry.
 
If Mary was saved from sin at the very moment of her conception, then that means that she never willingly accepted Jesus, for she was saved from sin, not through her acceptance of Christ, but because of Christ’s decision to save her before she even had the ability to understand it.
 
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Gnosis:
If Mary was saved from sin at the very moment of her conception, then that means that she never willingly accepted Jesus, for she was saved from sin, not through her acceptance of Christ, but because of Christ’s decision to save her before she even had the ability to understand it.
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God knew from the beginning what she would say.
 
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Gnosis:
If Mary was saved from sin at the very moment of her conception, then that means that she never willingly accepted Jesus, for she was saved from sin, not through her acceptance of Christ, but because of Christ’s decision to save her before she even had the ability to understand it.
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It’s more like being prevented from falling into the pit as opposed to pulling someone out of a pit after falling in. Either way they are still saved from the pit. Anyway, I don’t think God requires human consent for His Will to be done in heaven or on earth. Remember God didn’t give Johna a choice to go to Nineveh or not. God had a job for him to do and that’s that.
 
myfavoritmartin said:
(or would soon save) her
this is my question why soon save her if she was immaculate.
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As I tried to express in my earlier post, Mary is not talking about being saved from sin in Luke 1:47 when she used the word ‘Savior’. Mary was looking forward to the day when the child in her womb (Jesus Christ), as the Messiah, would save her, Israel, and all the lowly and hungry from their earthly enemies, whom she calls the proud, the mighty, and the proud, just “as he promised our fathers, promised Abraham and his descendants forever.” (ver. 55)
 
Let your Friendly Neighborhood Methodist put this into other language:
Mary was saved by being prevented from ever being sinful.
Most of us are saved by being cleansed from sin; she was saved by being kept in a state of sinlessness from her conception.

Remember that God inhabits eternity; He has no problem with doing something for someone before that person ever is conceived.

In evangelical-speak (I was raised Free Methodist), Mary was conceived saved, by the death & resurrection of her Son. He just did it sooner for His mom than for other people!!

(Does that :confused: make any sense??)
 
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myfavoritmartin:
If Mary is without sin why does she need a savior?
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both as I understand it, on earth she need a savior, in heaven she is without sin.

👍
 
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myfavoritmartin:
I was quoting todd easton above, I fail to see once again why she needs a savior if she is sinless
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That question has been answered. The Blessed Virgin Mary is sinless because she has a savior, specifically her son Jesus Christ.

– Mark L. Chance.
 
kecharitome is the Greek word used in Luke 1:28 that is wrongly translated by your King James Version and most modern translations to render “highly favoured”. It is more accurate to translate it as Jerome did in the Latin Vulgate - “Gratia Plena” or “Full of grace”.

Also, why is it that you claim something that the Catholic Church does not claim? You claim the Catholic Church claims Mary did not need a savior yet the Catholic Chuch claims she most certainly did, she was just saved at the moment of her conception by what Jesus did on Calvary BEFORE he did it. Now go and claim this is impossible… then I will tell you another impossibility or two- namely a virgin giving birth and God dying naked and dirty on a tree in a most humiliating and horrid way.

Ken
 
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