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*14(A)And He was casting out a demon, and it was mute; when the demon had gone out, the mute man spoke; and the crowds were amazed.
*15But some of them said, “He casts out demons (B)by (C)Beelzebul, the ruler of the demons.”
*16Others, to test Him, (D)were demanding of Him a sign from heaven.
*17(E)But He knew their thoughts and said to them, "Any kingdom divided against itself is laid waste; and a house divided against itself falls.
*18"If (F)Satan also is divided against himself, how will his kingdom stand? For you say that I cast out demons by (G)Beelzebul.
*19"And if I by (H)Beelzebul cast out demons, by whom do your sons cast them out? So they will be your judges.
*20"But if I cast out demons by the (I)finger of God, then (J)the kingdom of God has come upon you.
I never really understood this. What did Jesus mean ‘a kingdom against itself is laid waist’?
Here’s how I always thought of this passage (from the Jewish perspecitve I suppose)
Jesus could be posessed, and the man is posessed. So demon 1 (Jesus) could say to demon 2 (the other guy) ‘remove yourself’ and demon 2 could go along with it to make it look real.
See what I’m saying?
Note: I’m not saying Jesus is/was posessed. I’m just showing an alternative explination.
On another note (though this is related to the topic at hand), what ‘powers’ do demons have? Jesus is accused in the Bible of doing miracles through the name of the evil one. But the devil can’t perform healings or cures right? (if not, why?)
I know these questions sound dumb so I apologize
Now I know that some of my thoughts above aren’t correct, so could someone show me what is correct?
Thanks,
coolduude
*15But some of them said, “He casts out demons (B)by (C)Beelzebul, the ruler of the demons.”
*16Others, to test Him, (D)were demanding of Him a sign from heaven.
*17(E)But He knew their thoughts and said to them, "Any kingdom divided against itself is laid waste; and a house divided against itself falls.
*18"If (F)Satan also is divided against himself, how will his kingdom stand? For you say that I cast out demons by (G)Beelzebul.
*19"And if I by (H)Beelzebul cast out demons, by whom do your sons cast them out? So they will be your judges.
*20"But if I cast out demons by the (I)finger of God, then (J)the kingdom of God has come upon you.
I never really understood this. What did Jesus mean ‘a kingdom against itself is laid waist’?
Here’s how I always thought of this passage (from the Jewish perspecitve I suppose)
Jesus could be posessed, and the man is posessed. So demon 1 (Jesus) could say to demon 2 (the other guy) ‘remove yourself’ and demon 2 could go along with it to make it look real.
See what I’m saying?
Note: I’m not saying Jesus is/was posessed. I’m just showing an alternative explination.
On another note (though this is related to the topic at hand), what ‘powers’ do demons have? Jesus is accused in the Bible of doing miracles through the name of the evil one. But the devil can’t perform healings or cures right? (if not, why?)
I know these questions sound dumb so I apologize
Now I know that some of my thoughts above aren’t correct, so could someone show me what is correct?
Thanks,
coolduude