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dmar198
Guest
He didn’t say we should interpret the Bible like Protestants, he said Jesus spoke Aramaic, and the Aramaic word might include the meaning of vultures. There’s nothing Protestant about such a remark.Are you suggesting that we interpret Sacred Scripture the way Protestants do ?
He didn’t say to ignore the either context or Tradition. He didn’t even say the Greek is incorrect. He just said the Aramaic word might include the meaning of vultures. Catholic tradition doesn’t deny that in any place that I’m aware.Completely devoid of the context from which it came, the tradition of the Church ?
Yes, and he didn’t deny that. He simply said that the Aramaic word might have included the meaning of vultures. I’m not aware of any place where the Church Fathers, or St. Matthew, or any ancient translator said anything contrary. Are you?Is it not possible that the early church fathers, not to mention those who translated Jesus words into Greek - possibly we are talking about St. Matthew himself - had some insights into what Jesus was talking about ?